demoivres theorem

could anyone tell me whether demoivres theorem holds for even complex powers and if so could you sketch out a brief proof for it. thanks in advance

#HelpMe! #Proofs #Math

Note by Pranav Chakravarthy
8 years, 5 months ago

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Comments

I'm not certain what you mean by "even complex powers".

Demoivre's theorem states that (cosθ+isinθ)n=cos(nθ)+isin(nθ) ( \cos \theta + i \sin \theta)^n = \cos (n \theta) + i \sin (n \theta) . This holds true for all real values of θ \theta and integers nn. If by "even complex powers", you mean n=2kn = 2k for some integer kk, then yes it does. It holds for all integer powers, regardless of parity.

The quick proof of it, assumes that you know Euler's formula which converts a complex number to it's trigonometric form. We have that Reiθ=R(cosθ+isinθ) R e^{i \theta} = R(\cos \theta + i \sin \theta). This is sometimes denote as RCisθ R \mbox{Cis} \theta. As such, we have

cosθ+isinθ)n=(eiθ)n=einθ=cos(nθ)+isin(nθ) \cos \theta + i \sin \theta)^n = ( e^{i \theta} )^n = e^{i n \theta} = \cos (n \theta) + i \sin (n \theta)

If you have not learnt Euler's formula for complex numbers (or do not know that eπi+1=0 e^{ \pi i } + 1 = 0), you can still prove this by using the sum and product formulas for trigonometric functions. For example, for n=2n=2, we have

(cosθ+isinθ)2=cos2θ+2icosθsinθ+i2sin2θ=(cos2θsin2θ)+i(2sinθcosθ)=cos(2θ)+isin(2θ). \begin{aligned} (\cos \theta + i \sin \theta)^2 & = \cos^2 \theta + 2 i \cos \theta \sin \theta + i^2 \sin^2 \theta\\ & = (\cos^2 \theta - \sin^2 \theta) + i (2 \sin \theta \cos \theta)\\ & = \cos (2 \theta) + i \sin (2 \theta). \end{aligned}

For the complete proof, proceed by induction:

(cosθ+isinθ)k+1=(cosθ+isinθ)k×(cosθ+isinθ)1=[cos(kθ)+isin(kθ)]×(cosθ+isinθ)1=[cos(kθ)cosθsin(kθ)sinθ]+i[sin(kθ)cosθ+cos(kθ)sinθ]=cos(k+1)θ+isin(k+1)θ. \begin{aligned} ( \cos \theta + i \sin \theta)^{k+1} & = ( \cos \theta + i \sin \theta)^{k} \times ( \cos \theta + i \sin \theta)^{1} \\ & = [\cos (k \theta) + i \sin (k\theta) ] \times ( \cos \theta + i \sin \theta)^{1} \\ &= [\cos (k\theta) \cos \theta - \sin (k\theta) \sin \theta] + i [ \sin (k \theta) \cos \theta + \cos (k \theta) \sin \theta] \\ &= \cos (k+1) \theta + i \sin (k+1) \theta. \end{aligned}

Calvin Lin Staff - 8 years, 5 months ago

I think Pranav means (cosθ+isinθ)n(cos\theta + isin\theta)^n where n is complex

Zi Song Yeoh - 8 years, 5 months ago

Zi Song, that was my other interpretation. In order to make sense of that, there are other questions that should have raised first. I deal with them below.

First issue: Does the statement ab=Xa^b= X make sense if bb is a rational number?

We find that it doesn't necessarily make sense, as square roots can take multiple values. For example, we say that 112=1 1^{\frac {1}{2} } = 1 or 1-1. Hence, we can't say that ab=X a^b = X directly, but that it takes on several values.

With this in mind, let's consider DeMoivres again. What we can say, is that (cosθ+isinθ)n (\cos \theta + i \sin \theta)^n has cosnθ+isinnθ) \cos n\theta + i \sin n\theta) as one of its values. In the case of θ=0,n=12 \theta = 0, n = \frac {1}{2} , we get the statement that one of the values of 112 1^{ \frac {1}{2} } is 11 (and the other is 1-1).

Second issue: Does the statement "ab a^b takes on several values" make sense if b b is an irrational real number?

What does 11π 1^{\frac {1}{\pi}} mean? How many values does it take on? Just 1? Or infinitely many? Certainly it can't take on π \pi many values. I'm leaving this aside, and you can look it up if you're interested.

Third issue: If nn is complex, it means that nθ n \theta is complex. Hence, we need to define cos,sin:CC \cos, \sin : \mathbb{C} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}

One way to define cos,sin \cos, \sin is through the MacLaurin Series expansion, which applies to a complex argument. For example, we have sinx=xx33!+x55! \sin x = x - \frac {x^3}{3!} + \frac {x^5}{5!} - \ldots , and can substitute xx for any complex number. Technically, we say that this makes cos,sin:CC \cos, \sin : \mathbb{C} \rightarrow \mathbb{C} an analytic continuation of cos,sin:RR \cos, \sin : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}

Having dealt with these issues, what we can say is that (cosw+isinw)z (\cos w + i \sin w)^z has coszw+isinzw \cos zw + i \sin zw as one of its values, for z,wCz, w \in \mathbb{C}. The easiest proof, is once again using Euler's formula, and checking that the trigonometric form holds even when θ \theta is complex, and that exponentiation laws hold for complex numbers.

For example, e1=cosi+isini e^ {-1} = \cos i + i \sin i. Note that since cosi,sini \cos i, \sin i are no longer real values, we cannot compare real and imaginary parts and claim that cosi=1e \cos i = \frac{1}{e} and that sini=0 \sin i = 0 (because that's not true). However, you can use the MacLaurin expansion to calculate these values.

Calvin Lin Staff - 8 years, 5 months ago
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