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The general statement, I believe, would be that if f(m)∣f(g(m)) for infinitely many m∈Z for some f,g∈Z[x], then f(g(0))=0, although there are probably other ways generalize this.
Note that f(n)≡f(0)(modn), so n∣f(0) for infinitely many n∈Z, which is possible if and only if f(0)=0, since 0 is the only integer with infinitely many divisors.
We have the condition A∣f(2A+1) where A is a power of two minus one. Assuming that n is big enough, let p be the biggest prime number dividing A: we have p∣f(2A+1), or just p∣f(1). Since the set of prime numbers dividing a number of the form 2m−1 is infinite (*), we have that f(1) is divisible by an infinite number of primes - this gives f(1)=0.
(*) Assuming that every 2n−1 can be factored in terms of p1,…,pk, we have a contradiction, since:
∀i∈[1,k],21+∏j=1k(pj−1)−1≡2−1≡1≡0(modpi).
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This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
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Is there a more general statement that can be made here?
On a related note, show that if n∣f(n) for infinitely many integers n, then f(0)=0.
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The general statement, I believe, would be that if f(m)∣f(g(m)) for infinitely many m∈Z for some f,g∈Z[x], then f(g(0))=0, although there are probably other ways generalize this.
Note that f(n)≡f(0)(modn), so n∣f(0) for infinitely many n∈Z, which is possible if and only if f(0)=0, since 0 is the only integer with infinitely many divisors.
We have the condition A∣f(2A+1) where A is a power of two minus one. Assuming that n is big enough, let p be the biggest prime number dividing A: we have p∣f(2A+1), or just p∣f(1). Since the set of prime numbers dividing a number of the form 2m−1 is infinite (*), we have that f(1) is divisible by an infinite number of primes - this gives f(1)=0.
(*) Assuming that every 2n−1 can be factored in terms of p1,…,pk, we have a contradiction, since: ∀i∈[1,k],21+∏j=1k(pj−1)−1≡2−1≡1≡0(modpi).
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Nice way to show that the set of primes which divide 2n−1 is infinite.
Note that p doesn't need to be the biggest prime number that divides A. (doesn't impact your proof)
Minor typo: this gives f(1)=0.