Some basic idea of differentiation. Here is a (very) informal introduction.
So, What is e?
e is the unique real constant such that the differential equation dxdy=ky has a solution of the type y=Cekx, which is equivalent to saying that e=n→∞lim(1+nx)xn
Why should I care?
Well, these functions pop up all the time. Here is a classical example:
Say, I have a culture of bacteria which is continuously replicating. It is obvious(why?) that the rate of growth of the culture is proportional to the size of the culture itself.
Let us now try to express the size of the culture (y) as a function of time(t).
Using what we just pointed out, we have:
dtdy∝ydtdy=kywhere k is the rate constant
Compare that with the equation in the definition!
So, we have y(t)=Cektwhere C was the initial size
I am not very fond of bacteria. Nor do I understand why you emphasized continuously over there.
Well, you must know of compound interest.
Say, my principle was P, rate R and I compound anually.
At the end of the first year, I have (P+PR)=P(1+R)
At the end of the second year, I have P(1+R)+R(P(1+R))=P(1+R)2
At the end of the tth year, I have P(1+R)t
Okay, now what if I compound half yearly? Wouldn't it be better because I'd have more money that is compounding during the mid-year?
Yeah, that is correct.
At the end of the first half-year, I have (P+P2R=P(1+2R)
At the end of the year, I have P(1+2R)+2R(P(1+2R))=P(1+2R)2
At the end of the tth year, I have P(1+2R)2t
Well, if I compounded n times an year, I'd be getting A=P(1+nR)nt
I could keep compounding continuously too, which would mean the amount is never at rest.
That is Acont=n→∞limP(1+nR)nt=n→∞limP(1+nR)RRnt=Pn→∞lim(1+nR)RnRt=PeRt
I still do not see why that is the unique number as promised in the first definition.
Here you go:
Proposition Let f:R→R be a differentiable function such that f(0)=C and f′(x)=f(x). Then it must be the case that f=Cex.
Proof Let g(x)=f(x)Ce−x. Then
g′(x)=−f(x)Ce−x+f′(x)Ce−x=(f′(x)−f(x))Ce−x=0
by assumption, so g is constant. But g(0)=1, so g(x)=1 identically.
Hence, 1=f(x)Ce−x⟹f(x)=Cex
Why is the logarithm base e termed natural?
Because it is!
You have seen how e relates to every exponential growth scenario, now it is obvious why the natural logarithm relates to time.
The growth velocity of bacteria population varies with it's size. So, the time taken to grow by an amount would vary inversely with it. Hence, we have dxdlnx=x1.
More precisely, our bacteria culture which grew as a function of time as y(t)=Cekt is of a specific size y at time t=kln(Cy)
What is important is to observe that Cy is the amount by which it grew and k is the rate constant.
What does it mean to say that eiπ+1=0 ?
That is one of the most beautiful equations of all time!
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solution means a root of an equation according to me , do you agree?
If yes , then you explained in the earlier note that dxdy means rate of change of a quantity with respect to other or a tangent to the curve.
Now how can a magnitude( rate of change of a quantity with respect to other) have a root - seems really odd!
or how can a tangent(which represents a direction) can have root?
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Solution is a very general term. It does not have a strict definition.
No, by solution of a differential equation, a root, i.e, a number that satisfies the equation is not what is meant.
The solution to a differential equation, is an analytical equation which upon differentiating gives back the equation.
Here is what comprises an analytical expression:
analytic
The solution to dxdy=ky can be y=Cekx because differentiating this in gives the differential equation.
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y=Cekx
There's a typo in your comment. It should beLog in to reply
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LATEX code quickly sometimes makes you miss the brackets. :D
I thought so. Typing rawVery informative . Helped to brushen up my concepts .
I take very high offense on how you called the first way of calculating e "lame".
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It's not that lame but there are faster converging methods.
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True.
But ex is one of the most renowned Taylor series simply because eix=cosx+isinx :)
"Proof" that eπi≈−1
eπi≈(1.0000011000000)πi
=(1.000001πi)1000000
≈(1+.000001πi)1000000
≈−1.000005+.00000000001i
≈−1
Therefore, eπi≈−1. Somehow. I guess.
(From a correspondence: "Ooh, nice! How did you get from (1+.01πi)^100 to -1 + junk?" "I multiplied it by itself 1000000 times.")
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Before anyone says that's not a real proof: You don't say?!
I think the question is, If this zigzag function is continualy shrinks by a factor k, what will be the its length at infinity?
@Abhineet Nayyar