Hello everyone!!
While researching on a series, I found something magical. Can someone explain this??
Let \[S=1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}+ ……\]
S=(1+31+51+……)+21[1+21+31+41+……]
S=(1+31+51+....)+2S
2S=1+31+51+… eqn(i)
Now from definition of S, 2S=21+41+61+…. eqn(ii)
Comparing eqn(i) and eqn(ii) and transposing,
We get 1−21+31−41+…..=0
But obviously,
(1−21)+(31−41)+….>0
#NumberTheory
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Here S is not a converging series. The sum of the given series diverges. So you are treating S as a number, but its sum goes to infinity ( and infinity can not be considered as number , because it does not follow the properties of numbers). So unknowingly you are applying algebraic operations on infinity (for you it is S) , which is a flaw in this your something magical. !!!!!!!!
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Thanx dude! I got what you are saying! But I dont know much about convergence of a series! Any good and reliable source? Well, I tried to learn convergence from "Hall and Knight". I need some more help!
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Go for some UnderGraduate Maths book about sequence and series. You will find the complete conceptual information about the convergence and divergence. Hopefully, it will help you.