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Let x+y=t
Since x≡−ymodt, we have, xn+yn≡2ynmodt
If the above modulo equals 0, then t∣2yn which is clearly impossible since t does not divide 2 (xy>1⟹t≥3) and t does not divide yn (x and y are coprime).
Looks good, but you need to be slightly careful, especially if you haven't used all the conditions in the problem. (Given that it's an olympiad problem, and they tend to be provide just enough details.) If so, think about it. Is that a necessary condition? If yes, then you need to use it. If not, then you might want to explain why the condition isn't needed.
In this case, the statement is true for (x,y)=(1,1), which contradicts your claim that we can solutions "only if y=0".
Why would you need Fermat's Last Theorem? What is wrong with a 'remainder-factor-theorem' argument like @Ishan Singh 's? Am I missing something obvious?
For any xn+yn, where x and y are coprime positive integers and n is an even positive integer, the equation is irreducible, i.e. it can not be factorised. Hence it has no integer root. But since the question states that x and y are integers and the sum of two integers is always an integer, xn+yn is not divisible by x+y.
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
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to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
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Let x+y=t
Since x≡−ymodt, we have,
xn+yn≡2ynmodt
If the above modulo equals 0, then t∣2yn which is clearly impossible since t does not divide 2 (xy>1⟹t≥3) and t does not divide yn (x and y are coprime).
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Looks good, but you need to be slightly careful, especially if you haven't used all the conditions in the problem. (Given that it's an olympiad problem, and they tend to be provide just enough details.) If so, think about it. Is that a necessary condition? If yes, then you need to use it. If not, then you might want to explain why the condition isn't needed.
In this case, the statement is true for (x,y)=(1,1), which contradicts your claim that we can solutions "only if y=0".
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@Calvin Lin I guess this should be suffice.
Why would you need Fermat's Last Theorem? What is wrong with a 'remainder-factor-theorem' argument like @Ishan Singh 's? Am I missing something obvious?
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I added that just to make you think a little bit. :D
I am pretty sure this is correct.
For any xn+yn, where x and y are coprime positive integers and n is an even positive integer, the equation is irreducible, i.e. it can not be factorised. Hence it has no integer root. But since the question states that x and y are integers and the sum of two integers is always an integer, xn+yn is not divisible by x+y.
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Do not confuse a statement about divisibility of polynomials, with a statement about divisibility of integers.
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Yeah.