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Regarding the solution you specified for Problem 2:
What happens if we take m=3 and n=9? We can see that m∣n and it obeys the assumption you made (without loss of generality) but it doesn't fall in any of the two cases you specified.
You missed writing the term (−F0x) in the line where you grouped the coefficients of the terms before substitution of values took place. It doesn't matter much though since F0=0.
@Kishlaya Jaiswal
–
Another suggestion that I'd like to make is to shift the third line of the sum (F(x)−xF(x)−x2F(x)) a little more to the right as follows:
What happens when ∣x∣≥ϕ−1 ? Does the given equation still hold true? Your solution seems incomplete to me since it doesn't make any conclusion regarding the constraint and doesn't specify whether it fails for ∣x∣≥ϕ−1 or not?!
So, what happens for ∣x∣∈[ϕ−1,1) ? Does the series converge for that part? That's what I'm referring to. The ∣x∣<1 part is trivial and needs not to be mentioned since the sum is a weighted infinte GP with Fibonacci numbers as coefficients (weights).
@U Z
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The fact that you mentioned in the previous comment. I was referring to that. And I used the term "weighted" to say that all the xk's do not equally contribute to the sum. The contribution depends upon the Fk coefficients. You must have heard of the Weighted Arithmetic Mean. The "weighted" here means the same as it does there.
Easy Math Editor
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Problem 3 :
We note that for i∈N , Fi.Fi+1−Fi−1.Fi =Fi(Fi+1−Fi−1) =Fi2 .
Also note that F0=0
Now we have to do some manual labour , we add,
F12=F1.F2
F22=F2.F3−F1.F2
F32=F3.F4−F2.F3
and so on
Fn2=Fn.Fn+1−Fn−1.Fn
Therefore we get i=0∑nFi2=Fn.Fn+1
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Good observation +1
There's a typo in the second line of the solution. It should be Fi(Fi+1−Fi−1)=Fi2
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Thanks dude, I've edited it .
Problem 1 -
ϕ1=21+5,ϕ2=21−5
ϕ12−1=(21+5)2−1=23+5−1=21+5=ϕ1
ϕ22−1=(21−5)2−1=23−5−1=21−5=ϕ2
i=0∑nF2i+1=i=0∑n5ϕ12i+1−ϕ22i+1
= 51(ϕ1i=0∑nϕ12i−ϕ2i=0∑nϕ22i)
= 51(ϕ1×ϕ12−1ϕ12n+2−1−ϕ2×ϕ22−1ϕ22n+2−1)
= 51(ϕ12i+2−1)−(ϕ22i+2−1)
= F2n+2
Problem 2 - n>m thus m=2n or m=2n+1
taking the cases , we see that it is divisible.
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Regarding the solution you specified for Problem 2:
What happens if we take m=3 and n=9? We can see that m∣n and it obeys the assumption you made (without loss of generality) but it doesn't fall in any of the two cases you specified.
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Thanks for noticing.
Brilli members, you can add solution to the given problems here.
I would like to suggest a problem of my own: Prove that for all ∣x∣<ϕ−1,
1−x−x2x=k=0∑∞Fkxk
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That's actually the generating function for Fibonacci series. Here's my solution:
Let F(x) be the generating function for the fibonacci series, then
F(x)=F0+F1x+F2x2+F3x3+…
We know that Fn−Fn−1−Fn−2=0. Therefore,
xF(x)=F0x+F1x2+F2x3+F3x4+…
and x2F(x)=F0x2+F1x3+F2x4+F3x5+…
Now we observe that,
F(x)−xF(x)−x2F(x)==F0+F1x+F2x2+F3x3+…−F0x−F1x2−F2x3−F3x4−…−F0x2−F1x3−F2x4−F3x5−…F0+(F1−F0)x+(F2−F1−F0)x2+(F3−F2−F1)x3+(F4−F3−F2)x4+…
Now, first we observe that the coefficient of xk is 0 ∀k≤2 and also, we substitute F0=0, F1=1. Thus,
(1−x−x2)F(x)=0+x+0x2+0x3+0x4+…
⇒F(x)=1−x−x2x
⇒k=0∑∞Fkxk=1−x−x2x
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Beautiful proof a far better than mine's
Hi Kishlaya , I had sent you an e-mail to your outlook account , did you receive it ?
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EDIT : Got it.
You missed writing the term (−F0x) in the line where you grouped the coefficients of the terms before substitution of values took place. It doesn't matter much though since F0=0.
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(F(x)−xF(x)−x2F(x)) a little more to the right as follows:
Another suggestion that I'd like to make is to shift the third line of the sumF(x)−xF(x)−x2F(x)==F0+F1x+F2x2+F3x3+…−F0x−F1x2−F2x3−F3x4−… −F0x2−F1x3−F2x4−F3x5−…F0+(F1−F0)x+(F2−F1−F0)x2+(F3−F2−F1)x3+(F4−F3−F2)x4+…
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Thanks.
The note which I have created I wrote the problems which I created myself , I am adding your's too . Thanks
1−x−x2xxxxx=k=1∑∞Fkxk=(1−x−x2)k=1∑∞Fkxk=k=1∑∞Fkxk−k=1∑∞Fkxk+1−k=1∑∞Fkxk+2=F1x+F2x2−F1x2+k=3∑∞(Fk−Fk−1−Fk−2)xk=F1x+(F2−F1)x2+k=3∑∞(Fk−Fk−1−Fk−2)xk
F1=1,F2−F1=0,Fk−Fk−1−Fk−2=0 by definition
x=x
L.H.S=R.H.S
H.P
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What happens when ∣x∣≥ϕ−1 ? Does the given equation still hold true? Your solution seems incomplete to me since it doesn't make any conclusion regarding the constraint and doesn't specify whether it fails for ∣x∣≥ϕ−1 or not?!
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∣x∣<1
for infinite summation -Log in to reply
ϕ−1≈0.618
So, what happens for ∣x∣∈[ϕ−1,1) ? Does the series converge for that part? That's what I'm referring to. The ∣x∣<1 part is trivial and needs not to be mentioned since the sum is a weighted infinte GP with Fibonacci numbers as coefficients (weights).
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∣anan+1∣. I did'nt understand your last line that ∣x∣<1 is trivial and please can you elaborate the weighted part
Yes it would -Log in to reply
xk's do not equally contribute to the sum. The contribution depends upon the Fk coefficients. You must have heard of the Weighted Arithmetic Mean. The "weighted" here means the same as it does there.
The fact that you mentioned in the previous comment. I was referring to that. And I used the term "weighted" to say that all theExcellent work !!! Respect man !!!