THINK:....a bar magnet is dropped without any initial velocity in a very long(but not considerable to earth's radius) hollow copper tube which is fixed to the ground of earth..the bar magnet is falling freely under gravity .......now my question:::::Can the accelleration of the bar magnet be zero...??............ think logically to crack it.....happy problem solving....thanks in advance for those who join this.....:)
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
*italics*
or_italics_
**bold**
or__bold__
paragraph 1
paragraph 2
[example link](https://brilliant.org)
> This is a quote
\(
...\)
or\[
...\]
to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
Yeah, it can be zero. By lenz law an upward force would act to oppose the change in magnetic field. As the speed of bar magnet increases, the change in magnetic field would increase and so does the force. A time would come when the upward force would balance downward force of gravity and bar magnet would fall with terminal velocity. Am I correct? Can someone help me finding the relation between upward force and rate of change in magnetic field?
Thanks for the question :)
Log in to reply
you are exactly right in your description ......and you could also consider the matter of eddy current for this description.....then you deciphered the problem....:)
Log in to reply
I now recall what happens exactly. The changing magnetic field produces eddy currents in the tube. The eddy current constitutes a magnetic dipole which repels the bar magnet. Right?
Log in to reply
good job! ;D