I know that it holds for non-negatives a,b,c but consider the following:
The inequality a3+b3+c3≥3abc holds for non-negatives a,b,c but it holds for real numbers as well iff (a+b+c)≥0 since:
a2+b2+c2−ab−bc−ca≥0∀a,b,c∈R⟺a+b+c≥0(a+b+c)(a2+b2+c2−ac−bc−ca)≥0⟺Euler’s Formulaa3+b3+c3−3abc≥0⇔a3+b3+c3≥3abc
(Generally Note that we can prove the same way that a+b+c≤0⇔a3+b3+c3≤3abc)
Considering that the inequality 2(a3+b3+c3)≥a2b+ab2+b2c+bc2+c2a+ca2 holds for all real numbers by rearrangement Inequality, I suppose that something similar for the inequality a2b+ab2+b2c+bc2+c2a+ca2≥6abc(∗) should exist. But unfortunately (a+b+c)≥0 is not the condition we are looking for...
I don't really know if that helps but (∗)⇔(a+b)(b+c)(c+a)≥8abc⇔(a+b+c)(ab+bc+ca)≥9abc
#Algebra
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