Help for Integration (3)

msinx+0x(sect)mdt>(m+1)x \large m \sin x + \int_0^x (\sec t)^m \, dt > (m+1) x

For all 0<x<π20 <x<\dfrac\pi2, and mNm \in \mathbb N, the inequality above holds true.

Prove the inequality above without differentiating it.

#Calculus

Note by Rishabh Deep Singh
5 years, 2 months ago

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Comments

Cool question!
Only an outline, sorry, because I'm stretched for time.

Write (sect)m (\sec t)^m as (1+tan2t)m2 (1 + \tan^2 t)^{\frac{m}{2}} .

Then use Bernoulli's inequality, (1+x)n>1+nx (1 + x)^n > 1 + nx for x=tan2t,n=m2 x = \tan^2 t, n = \frac{m}{2} .

Integrate the terms (not difficult), and then you'll get, this is equivalent to, 2sinx+tanx>3x 2 \sin x + \tan x > 3x which is true (if you see the Maclaurin series expansions).
 

EDIT: Screw Maclaurin series, I found this absolute beauty of a gem to prove 2sinx+tanx>3x 2 \sin x + \tan x > 3x .

2sinx+tanx=0x(2cost+sec2t)dt=0x(cost+cost+1cos2t)dt>0x3dt=3x 2 \sin x + \tan x = \int\limits_{0}^{x} (2\cos t + \sec^2 t) dt = \int\limits_{0}^{x} \left(\cos t + \cos t + \dfrac{1}{\cos^2 t}\right) dt > \int\limits_{0}^{x} 3 dt = 3x
where the inequality follows by AM-GM!

Ameya Daigavane - 5 years, 2 months ago
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