Help me! Part 2

Does (σ0(a)a)=0\binom{\sigma_0(a)} a=0 for n3n \ge 3 and nn is a positive integer?

Note

  • The divisor function of aa (σ0(a)\sigma_0(a)) gives the answer(s) of "how many number bb such that aa is divisible by bb?"
#NumberTheory

Note by Gia Hoàng Phạm
2 years, 2 months ago

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Comments

When n3n \geq 3 it is true that σ0(n)n\sigma_0(n) \leq n. And by definition, (uv)=0\binom{u}{v} = 0 where u<vu \lt v. So it looks to me like the answer is yes.

Thomas Raffill - 2 years, 2 months ago

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Jeff Morrison - 1 year, 11 months ago

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I don't think brilliant.org members fit the profile of the type of people who would be interested in an academic cheating web site.

Thomas Raffill - 1 year, 11 months ago
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