I need some help regarding one of the steps in Pollard's p-1.
What I understood: We are assuming that there exists , a prime factor of , such that is -powersmooth for some (not -smooth!) and that we're trying to build a number (to be used as an exponent) such that . Most commonly this is done in two ways:
Let's focus on the second. My confusion comes from the value of a. Using the main assumption we made ( is -powersmooth) it seems clear that . However, some sources (including Wikipedia) use . Since we can assume this works too but makes unnecessarily large.
At first I thought it's just an error on Wikipedia and I made a correction, but I found several revisions in page history that change this both ways ( to and back), with no real discussion, which makes me unsure. Can someone explain why makes more sense than here, or confirm that was just an error?
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The confusion seems to be whether we're assuming p−1 is B-powersmooth or B-smooth, right? If it's B-powersmooth, then we can use the smaller bound, but if it's B-smooth, then we have to use the larger one.
The Wikipedia page cites the smaller bound, but the example (n=299, B=5) appears to use the larger bound.