Help to Evaluate an Integral

I Need Help in evaluating this integral

0π2θcosθdθsinθ+sin3θ\int\limits_0^\frac{\pi}{2} \frac {\theta cos \theta d\theta } { sin \theta + \sin ^ 3 \theta }

None of my teachers were able to solve this, nor my friends. It has a finite answer, as one of my friends checked on a scientific calculator.

#Calculus #Integration #HelpMe! #MathProblem

Note by Ghanashyam Chakravarthi
7 years, 6 months ago

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8 votes

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Comments

First, use IBP and we'll end up with 0π2xcosxsinx+sin3xdx=π4log20π2(logsinxlog(1+sin2x)2dx) \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\dfrac{x \cos{x}}{\sin{x}+\sin^{3}{x}}\, dx = -\frac{\pi}{4}\log{2} - \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \left( \log{\sin{x}} - \frac{\log{(1+\sin^{2}{x})}}{2}\, dx \right)

and since 0π2logsinxdx=π2log2\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \log{\sin{x}}\, dx = -\frac{\pi}{2}\,\log{2}

we have 0π2xcosxsinx+sin3xdx=π4log2+0π2log(1+sin2x)2dx(0)\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\dfrac{x \cos{x}}{\sin{x}+\sin^{3}{x}} \, dx = \frac{\pi}{4}\,\log{2} + \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\log{(1+\sin^{2}{x})}}{2}\, dx \quad\cdots\cdots\cdots\cdots (0)

Let I(k)=0π2log(1+sin2x+ksin2x)2dx(1)I(k) = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\log{(1+\sin^{2}{x}+k\, \sin^{2}{x})}}{2}\, dx \quad\cdots\cdots\cdots\cdots (1)

To evaluate I(k), we can make use of differentiation under the integral sign:

Ik=0π2sin2xdx1+sin2x+ksin2x\frac{\partial I}{\partial k} = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin^{2}{x}\, dx}{1+\sin^{2}{x}+k\, \sin^{2}{x}}     I(k)=0π21k+1(1sec2x1+(k+2)tan2x)dx\implies I'(k) = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{k+1}\left(1-\frac{\sec^{2}{x}}{1+(k+2)\tan^{2}x}\right)\, \, dx =xk+1tan1(k+2tanx)(k+1)k+20π2=π2k+2(11k+2)=\frac{x}{k+1}-\frac{\tan^{-1}{(\sqrt{k+2}\,\tan{x})}}{(k+1)\, \sqrt{k+2}}\bigg|_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} = \frac{\pi}{2\,k+2}\left(1-\frac{1}{\sqrt{k+2}}\right)

Integrating w.r.t. k, we get:

I(k)=π2(log(k+1)log(k+21k+2+1))+C=π2log(2(k+2+1)2)+CI(k)= \frac{\pi}{2}\left(\log{(k+1)}-\log{\left(\frac{\sqrt{k+2}-1}{\sqrt{k+2}+1}\right)}\right)+C=\frac{\pi}{2}\, \log{\left(2\, (\sqrt{k+2}+1)^{2}\right)}+C I(k)=π2log(2(k+2+1)2)+C(2)\therefore I(k) = \frac{\pi}{2}\, \log{\left(2\, (\sqrt{k+2}+1)^{2}\right)}+C \quad\cdots\cdots\cdots\cdots (2)

To find C, substitute k=-1. From (1), I(1)=0I(-1) = 0 and from (2),
I(1)=3π2log2+CI(-1) = \frac{3\,\pi}{2}\log{2}+C     C=3π2log2\implies C= - \frac{3\,\pi}{2}\log{2} The required integral is I(0)=0π2log(1+sin2x)dx=π2log(2(2+1)2)3π2log2I(0) = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \log{(1+\sin^{2}{x})}\, dx = \frac{\pi}{2}\, \log{\left(2\, (\sqrt{2}+1)^{2}\right)} - \frac{3\,\pi}{2}\log{2}

Substituting in (0), we see that 0π2xcosxdxsinx+sin3x=π4log2+π4log(2(2+1)2)3π4log2\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\dfrac{x \cos{x}\, dx}{\sin{x}+\sin^{3}{x}} = \frac{\pi}{4}\,\log{2} + \frac{\pi}{4}\, \log{\left(2\, (\sqrt{2}+1)^{2}\right)}- \frac{3\,\pi}{4}\log{2} =π4log(3+222)= \boxed{{\frac{\pi}{4}\log{\left(\frac{3+2\,\sqrt{2}}{2}\right)}}}

gopinath no - 7 years, 6 months ago

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its an awesome solution ..!!

gopal chpidhary - 7 years, 6 months ago

Hello... Where is d(theta)? This is normally written when integrating functions to say reverse the process and of course, finding the antiderivative. Also is theta really before cos(theta)?

John Ashley Capellan - 7 years, 6 months ago

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Thanks John. I had forgotten d(theta) in the process of tying in Latex. And yes there is a (theta) before cos(theta). I've made the change.

Ghanashyam Chakravarthi - 7 years, 6 months ago

I tried using limits. What's the answer? Is it by any chance 0??

Biswaroop Roy - 7 years, 6 months ago

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I don't know the answer, but I don't think its zero.

Ghanashyam Chakravarthi - 7 years, 6 months ago

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Look,at first the sum looks easy,doesn't it? my answer was (pi/2) ln(tan(pi/2)/tan 0)) Now as this tan((pi/2)/tan(0)) is undefined. so lets find limit x->0 tan((pi/2)+x)/tan(x). As this is (infinity)/(infinity) form, we can differentiate on numerator and denominator according to L'Hospital Rule. Doing so, and putting x=0,once the expression is defined, we get the limiting value to be 1. So putting this limiting value in the initial expression, answer is (pi/2)(ln 1) or, (pi/2). 0 or 0. In the end answer is coming out to be 0. Did I go wrong anywhere?

Biswaroop Roy - 7 years, 6 months ago

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@Biswaroop Roy How did you get (pi/2) ln(tan(pi/2)/tan 0)) ? From there on its correct.

Ghanashyam Chakravarthi - 7 years, 6 months ago

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@Ghanashyam Chakravarthi That is very simple. from the denominator take sine theta common. put cos^2(theta)
in place of 1+ sin^2(theta). Then do the required cancellation to get expression as ((theta)/(sin (theta).cos(theta))) inside the integral. Now apply,the rule for definite integral: Integral f(x)from 0 to a=integral f(a-x)from 0 to a. Put the limits from 0 to pi/2.Then you will get the final expression : pi/2(sec^2(theta)d(theta)/tan(theta)) Now you should be able to do the rest. Its simple enough .

Biswaroop Roy - 7 years, 6 months ago

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@Biswaroop Roy but 1- sin^2 (theta) is cos^2(theta) !!!

Ghanashyam Chakravarthi - 7 years, 6 months ago

you can solve this by using Wallis fomula

Mark Relosa - 7 years, 6 months ago

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hey can you tell me how..

Ghanashyam Chakravarthi - 7 years, 6 months ago
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