I Need Help in evaluating this integral
0∫2πsinθ+sin3θθcosθdθ
None of my teachers were able to solve this, nor my friends. It has a finite answer, as one of my friends checked on a scientific calculator.
#Calculus
#Integration
#HelpMe!
#MathProblem
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First, use IBP and we'll end up with ∫02πsinx+sin3xxcosxdx=−4πlog2−∫02π(logsinx−2log(1+sin2x)dx)
and since ∫02πlogsinxdx=−2πlog2
we have ∫02πsinx+sin3xxcosxdx=4πlog2+∫02π2log(1+sin2x)dx⋯⋯⋯⋯(0)
Let I(k)=∫02π2log(1+sin2x+ksin2x)dx⋯⋯⋯⋯(1)
To evaluate I(k), we can make use of differentiation under the integral sign:
∂k∂I=∫02π1+sin2x+ksin2xsin2xdx ⟹I′(k)=∫02πk+11(1−1+(k+2)tan2xsec2x)dx =k+1x−(k+1)k+2tan−1(k+2tanx)∣∣∣∣02π=2k+2π(1−k+21)
Integrating w.r.t. k, we get:
I(k)=2π(log(k+1)−log(k+2+1k+2−1))+C=2πlog(2(k+2+1)2)+C ∴I(k)=2πlog(2(k+2+1)2)+C⋯⋯⋯⋯(2)
To find C, substitute k=-1. From (1), I(−1)=0 and from (2),
I(−1)=23πlog2+C ⟹C=−23πlog2 The required integral is I(0)=∫02πlog(1+sin2x)dx=2πlog(2(2+1)2)−23πlog2
Substituting in (0), we see that ∫02πsinx+sin3xxcosxdx=4πlog2+4πlog(2(2+1)2)−43πlog2 =4πlog(23+22)
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its an awesome solution ..!!
Hello... Where is d(theta)? This is normally written when integrating functions to say reverse the process and of course, finding the antiderivative. Also is theta really before cos(theta)?
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Thanks John. I had forgotten d(theta) in the process of tying in Latex. And yes there is a (theta) before cos(theta). I've made the change.
I tried using limits. What's the answer? Is it by any chance 0??
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I don't know the answer, but I don't think its zero.
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Look,at first the sum looks easy,doesn't it? my answer was (pi/2) ln(tan(pi/2)/tan 0)) Now as this tan((pi/2)/tan(0)) is undefined. so lets find limit x->0 tan((pi/2)+x)/tan(x). As this is (infinity)/(infinity) form, we can differentiate on numerator and denominator according to L'Hospital Rule. Doing so, and putting x=0,once the expression is defined, we get the limiting value to be 1. So putting this limiting value in the initial expression, answer is (pi/2)(ln 1) or, (pi/2). 0 or 0. In the end answer is coming out to be 0. Did I go wrong anywhere?
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in place of 1+ sin^2(theta). Then do the required cancellation to get expression as ((theta)/(sin (theta).cos(theta))) inside the integral. Now apply,the rule for definite integral: Integral f(x)from 0 to a=integral f(a-x)from 0 to a. Put the limits from 0 to pi/2.Then you will get the final expression : pi/2(sec^2(theta)d(theta)/tan(theta)) Now you should be able to do the rest. Its simple enough .
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you can solve this by using Wallis fomula
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hey can you tell me how..