I got this question in a math competition; a multiple choice question:
Suppose \( p \) is a two-digit number and \( q \) has the same digits, but in reverse order. The number \(p^2 - q^2 \) is a non-zero perfect square. The sum of the digits of \( p \) is:
A) 7
B) 9
C) 11
D) 12
E) 13
Can you please solve this problem?
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
*italics*
or_italics_
**bold**
or__bold__
paragraph 1
paragraph 2
[example link](https://brilliant.org)
> This is a quote
\(
...\)
or\[
...\]
to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
Let a and b be digits. Now, let p=10a+b and q=10b+a.
Substituting these values, we get p2−q2=99(a2−b2). And thus, for this to be a perfect square, a2−b2=11.
Solving these equations give p=65 making the answer C.
Log in to reply
What does "Solving these equations" mean? By trial and error? Can you further demonstrate the process?
Log in to reply
Well, we only need to figure out the values of a and b because then p and q will be determined. So for solving a2−b2=11 observe that this implies
(a−b)(a+b)=11
Now, the LHS is an integer which implies that either a−b=11 and a+b=1 or a−b=1 and a+b=11
We see that only the second pair of equations holds true...….hence it is solved.
Log in to reply
p2−q2=99(a2−b2) to a2−b2=11.
Thanks... I understood this part now but can you tell me how you got from(I'm sorry to ask you such questions but I am not so good at competition math)
Log in to reply
According the statement of the question, we need 32⋅11(a2−b2) to be a perfect square. That means a2−b2=11m2 for some integer m. Now I think you can proceed from here onwards, by checking the possible values of m i.e. 1,2,3.
Log in to reply
Let p=10a+b where a,b are non-zero digits. Then q=10b+a and p2−q2=(10a+b)2−(10b+a)2=99a2−99b2=32×11×(a−b)(a+b).
For this to equal a non-zero perfect square we require a>b and, since 11 is prime, that (i) 11∣(a+b) and (ii) (a−b) is a perfect square. Condition (i) gives us the options for (a,b) of (9,2),(8,3),(7,4),(6,5), but of these only (a,b)=(6,5) satisfies condition (ii). Thus p=65 and indeed 652−562=1089=332.
Let p=10x+y and q=10y+x. Then p2−q2=(p+q)(p−q)=(11x+11y)(9x−9y)=(9)(11)(x+y)(x−y). Since x and y are non-zero digits, each of them may be 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 or 9. So x+y<19 and x−y<9. Also, since 11 is a prime number, x+y can only be 11, so that x−y can only be 1. Therefore x=6 and y=5. Hence x+y=11.
Log in to reply
How did you set up the inequality x+y<19 and x−y<9 ?
Log in to reply
See, x is at most 9 and so also y. So x+y is at most 18. Similarly, both x and y can at least be 1. So x−y is at most 9−1=8.
Log in to reply
x+y can only be 11 ?
Thanks, can you also tell whyLog in to reply
11∗22=44 which is more than 18
Because the next larger number isLog in to reply