Main post link -> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multiset#Recurrence_relation
I recently came across this interesting equation: \[\displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{m+k-1}{k} = \binom{n+m}{n}\] Wikipedia said that the result was related to the multiset, to which I have posted a link to in the title of the discussion. I still can't understand, though, why this equation is true. Can anyone figure it out?
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There's an easy direct proof, if you consider where the binomial coefficients are in Pascal's triangle.
As an additional hint, (0m−1)=1=(0m).
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The hockey stick identity! Thanks!
I guess the easiest way to prove this is to use induction, i.e., you just need to show ${m+n}\choose {n}+ {m+n}\choose {n+1}={m+n+1}\choose {n+1}$. It's not hard to show this equality using the definition of binomial expansion. As always a induction proof is not as satisfying as a conceptual explanation.
Well if you need a conceptual proof here it is:
The Left hand side of the equation(LHS) can be recognized as the Coefficient of xm in ∑k=0n(1+x)(m+k−1)∗xm−k (Such equations can be constructed with little analysis)....
This can be treated as a geometric progression(GP) and the well know formula for a GP can be used to get the required result as coefficient of xm in (1+x)(m+n)∗x(m−n) ....
which is (n(m+n)) ....
I have neglected the simplification of the GP sum you can Wikipedia for the sum of the GP formula and simplify it yourself :)
Really late but here goes: (Induction on n)
We establish a base case as n=0:
∑i=00(im+i−1)=(0m)
⇒ (0m−1)=(0m)⇒1=1
The base case clearly holds. Now the inductive case for n=k:
∑i=0k(im+i−1)=(km+k)
⇒ (k+1m+k)+∑i=0k(im+i−1)=(k+1m+k)+(km+k) (By hypothesis)
⇒ ∑i=0k+1(im+i−1)=(k+1)!(m−1)!(m+k)!+k!m!(m+k)!
⇒ ∑i=0k+1(im+i−1)=(k+1)!m!(m+k)!(m+k+1)
⇒ ∑i=0k+1(im+i−1)=(k+1m+k+1)
So we may conclude that the statement holds for the base case and that if the statement holds for some n=k, then it holds for n=k+1. The proof follows by induction.
QED
This can be easily verified by forming a recursion i hope...