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Hi Ronak ... I have solved Your Physics questions , I found all of them very Interesting . I really much impressed from your Problem making skills . I really appreciate awesomeness of your Problems ! Great work .. !
I'am regret that I joined brilliant very late , My relative brother recommended this site to me recently ...
There are so many good questions of maths and physics , and I found that :: You and Jatin yadav and Deepanshu and David Mattingly and Josh silverman Posted so many self made questions .. I'am really amazed with your skills !
@Nishu Sharma
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I know it's pretty late to type this but thanks for the appreciation, I see you are from jaipur also, in which area of jaipur are you from, I am from jaipur too. @Nishu sharma
@Ronak Agarwal
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Hi , Actually My home is at jaipur , but I live in kota alone , near by to my aunt , My family lives in Jaipur. My home in backyard of Vidhan-sabha .. where do you live ?
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
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to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
@Brian Charlesworth @Kunal Joshi @Ronak Agarwal @Raghav Vaidyanathan @Calvin Lin
@Nishu sharma
The answer is:
e4x2
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Yes ! But I gave this as a Challange , So Everyone should post thier approaches .. Like karthik did !
Well, it's very easy. And Raghav has given exactly the correct answer considering it to be very easy.
I1=∫0xe−z2+zx
Completing the square,
I1=∫0xex2/4e−z2+zx+x2/4
I1=ex2/4∫0xe−(z−x/2)2
Using u-substitution and a little bashing up, we get
I1=ex2/4∫−x/2x/2e−u2
And hence, I1=2ex2/4∫0x/2e−u2
By using error function now,
I1=ex2/4πerf(x/2)
Now, I2=∫0xe−(z/2)2
Using v-substitution and some 'using of facts',
I2=2∫0x/2e−v2
I2=πerf(x/2)
Therefore, I2I1=ex2/4
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Kartik there was no need to uneccasarily bring the error function into play here.
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Yes, you can convert one integral directly into the other without erf().
Yeah, I agree. That was a mistake!
Hi Ronak ... I have solved Your Physics questions , I found all of them very Interesting . I really much impressed from your Problem making skills . I really appreciate awesomeness of your Problems ! Great work .. ! I'am regret that I joined brilliant very late , My relative brother recommended this site to me recently ... There are so many good questions of maths and physics , and I found that :: You and Jatin yadav and Deepanshu and David Mattingly and Josh silverman Posted so many self made questions .. I'am really amazed with your skills !
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@Nishu sharma
I know it's pretty late to type this but thanks for the appreciation, I see you are from jaipur also, in which area of jaipur are you from, I am from jaipur too.Log in to reply
Also, never miss out dz inside integral. It is a bad habit.
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Yeah. But it is tedious. :P
Nicely done , but there is more Smarter approach for this .. Think about it Kartik sharma
Can anyone explain this https://brilliant.org/discussions/thread/extremely-weird-integration/?ref_id=946409