This rule of integration
0∫af(x)dx=0∫af(a−x)dx
I tried by using this rule to solve this integration but it wasn't solve.. the integration is
0∫π2−tan2(x)xdx... I tried wolfram alpha also but it was useless ..... How we can solve this integration by using this rule? . Thanks
#Calculus
#Integration
#IntegrationTechniques
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you can apply the rule then add the new integral to the original one, and divide by 2. You will be left with the integral:2π∫0π2−tan2x1dx.
Did you try that??
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What will happen if we solve 2−tan2x=0 x∈(0,π)?.....
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yes there is discontinueties in the integral at :
arctan(2) which is between 4π and 2π.
And π−arctan(2).
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∫0arctan(2)2−tan2xdx
=a→arctan(2)lim∫0a2−tan2xdx
Use the substitution u=tanx:
=a→arctan(2)lim∫0tana(2−u2)(1+u2)du
Easy by applying partial fractions then integrating, then apply the limit and it will yield a value of infinty. So the whole Integral diverges.
@Trevor B. You might like this!
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Yes, the Bounds Trick works nicely here. I know how to get to the indefinite, I just need to make the time to write it down and check the bounds. Partial fracs with what Hasan said originally should make it work.
you could try with partial fractions too