Is it really invertible?

Is cosx=1secx \cos x = \dfrac1{\sec x} and secx=1cosx \sec x =\dfrac1{\cos x} true (individually) for all xx?

#Geometry

Note by Vishal Yadav
5 years, 1 month ago

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Comments

The above equalities are always true as they're identities, however, they are meaningful only when x(2n+1)π2nϵZx ≠ (2n+1)\frac{\pi}{2}\,\,\forall\,\,n\,\epsilon\,\mathbb{Z} .

Aditya Sky - 5 years, 1 month ago
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