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Prove that r=0a(ar)=(r=0b(br))(r=1ab(b+r)b+r1(b+r1)!)\displaystyle \prod _{ r=0 }^{ a } \binom{a}{r} =\left(\prod _{ r=0 }^{ b } \binom{b}{r} \right)\left(\prod _{ r=1 }^{ a-b }{ \frac { { (b+r) }^{ b+r-1 } }{ (b+r-1)! } }\right ) , where a>ba>b.

I had previously posted this as a question which hadn't got much response so I am now posting this as a note.
Try more problems here.
#Combinatorics #Proofs #Awesome

Note by Abhishek Sharma
6 years, 1 month ago

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Comments

Can I mention really quickly that in this problem, you didn't specify that the brackets meant the floor function? To avoid ambiguity, write x\lfloor x\rfloor (code: \lfloor x\rfloor) instead of [x][x]. (P.S. How do you do a private message here?)

Akiva Weinberger - 6 years, 1 month ago

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My bad. I have corrected it now.

Abhishek Sharma - 6 years, 1 month ago
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