As we all know, if a0+a1x+...+anxn=0 has a solution of p+qi where {a0,a1,...,an}⊂R, then p−qi is also a solution.
Similarly, if a0+a1x+...+anxn=0 has a solution of p+qm where {a0,a1,...,an}⊂Qandm∈I, then p−qm is also a solution.
I was playing around with it until I suddenly got curious. If a0+a1x+...+anxn=0(n≥4andn∈N) has a solution of pm+qi(m∈I), then is it safe to assume that it also has the solutions of pm−qi,−pm+qi,−pm−qi?
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Yes, your observation is correct. Can you figure out how to prove it?
Let p+qm be a root of a polynomial f(x).
We can write f(x) = (x−(p+qm)(x−(p−qm))a(x) + r(x)
r(x)'s degree would be 1,
⟹r(x)=ax+b
If we get a=b=0,then p−qm will also be root of f(x)
Put x=p+qm & get a=b=0.
(This is not a proof but a hint.)
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