I want to know if the following thing can be done in a limit.
i encountered this problem
\(Prove\) \(that\)
x→∞lim(na1x1+a2x1+.......anx1)nx=a1a2.....an
ai∈R+
MySolution:
We re-write aix1=x1aix1−1.x1+1
doing this for all ai, our expression changes to:
(nxi=1∑nx1aix1−1+1)nx
Now here's the part i don't think is correct:
since x→∞⟹x1→0
for each ai : limx1→0x1aix1−1=logeai.......(by standard formula)
∴limx1→0i=1∑nx1aix1−1=i=1∑nlogeai=loge(a1a2....an)
so, we have our expression as:
x→∞lim(1+nxloge(a1a2....an))nx=eloge(a1a2....an)=a1a2....an
as required.
are the steps correct? what I mean to ask is that: can we derive the limits of the different parts independently and put their values to derive the limit of that function. 1
is this mathematically correct?
#Calculus
#Limits
#Infinity
#Infinitelimiits
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Comments
@Parth Lohomi @Calvin Lin @Mursalin Habib @megh choksi @Satvik Golechha @HARSH SHrivastava i have just started learning about limits. so if there are any gross mistakes i apologize beforehand.
it would mean a great deal if you helped me out :D
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Sorry, er..., but I'm a -_- in calculus. Though I'm sure the calculus freak @Parth Lohomi would help.
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:D okay then
please don't tag me everywhere!! ;(
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@Sandeep Bhardwaj could you help? :D
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Yeah off course ! Whatever you did in your solution is absolutely correct. There is no mistake in that. There may be many different solutions to any problem with different approaches. Your approach is also good and correct. The general problems of this type (1∞) are done easily using the method :
Let you have to find the L=Limx→a(f(x))g(x),whereLimx→af(x)=1andLimx→ag(x)=∞.
then, L=eLimx→a(f(x)−1)×g(x)
You are doing great. I appreciate your this innovative approach to learn something. Very good. Keep it up. !!!
PS : The difference between a master and a beginner is that the master has failed as many times as the beginner has not even tried. ! @Aritra Jana
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thanks a ton!!! :D
You know this means a lot!!! :D
and thanks for that extra bit of info on these types of limits! is that a part of L'Hospitals rule?
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00 and ∞∞ . These limits are solved by taking the log both sides.
Not really L'Hospital's Rule . Because L'Hospitals Rule is applicable only for the forms ofFor eg. let y=Limx→a(f(x))g(x),whereLimx→af(x)=1andLimx→ag(x)=∞.
taking log both sides
log(y)=g(x)×logf(x)
Now we solve the limit for log(y)..!!
And Limx→ag(x)×logf(x) is of the form ∞×0 now, which can be further converted into 00 and ∞∞ forms , and after that you can apply L'Hospitals Rule.
Suppose limx→ag(x)×logf(x)=λ
⟹y=Limx→a(f(x))g(x)=eλ.
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