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This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
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The integral doesn't exist if n=1. If the integral exists when n=1, then the integral is positive as the integrand is always positive.
Hence, no value of n exists such that the integral vanishes.
Edit:
∫−∞0ln(1+ex)dx=12π2
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I didn't get it. Why the integral doesn't exist for 0<n<1, as you said the integral exists only for n=1, Thank you.
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If n=1, then limx→−∞log(n+ex)=0 and hence the integral diverges.
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log to solve it.
I have used the series oflog(n+x)=log[1−(1−n−ex)],
Let, 1−n−ex=A,
So, ∫−∝0log(1−A)=1∗2A2+2∗3A3+3∗4A4⋯,
Here it can be seen that it will converge for some values of n which is nearer to 1.
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−1≤A<1
You should havePlus, you didn't integrate in the right way. If you did, you'll end up with infinty right from the first term.
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A=1−N−ex, so 0<n<1 and 0<ex<1,because we have −∝<x<0, will satisfy the condition.
Yes. AsLog in to reply
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n<1,n>0 . Is there any mistake in the method I have shown?
I got. But not for values ofLog in to reply
limx→−∞f(x)=0, then, ∫−∞0f(x)dx diverges.
A basic test of convergence is that ifI think you've not the integration correctly.