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Flip n coins. Clearly, there are 2^n strings of head and tails possible.
There are n C 1 strings with exactly 1 head, nC3 with 3 heads, and so on.
Observe that the probability of getting an odd number of heads is precisely half (by a variety of arguments like induction, recursion, or plain obviousness). This gives you the desired result.
Only, induction and recursive should not be considered as 'logical reasoning'(though of course it is logical. ), and should be considered as 'mathematical reasoning'
That's quite good thinking. I have an argument that'll give us the answer quickly. All we want is the number of odd selections out of a total of n.
Fix any object xn out of the n objects. Now the total number of strings possible for the remaining n−1 elements are 2n−1. Take any possible string of the total strings possible. If the set contains odd number of elements, then keep it as it is, otherwise add xn. We see there's a perfect pairing. So we are done!
Take n balls numbered from 1 to n. Take nth ball and put it aside. Split the rest of the n−1 balls into two sets - set A and set B. There are 2n−1 ways to do that which is our R.H.S. Now take nth ball which we have set aside initially and put in to either set A or set B so that number of balls in set A is odd. So, basically we have chosen odd number of balls from n balls in set A, which is the L.H.S. Hence the equation is proved.
[EDIT] I should have read the comments first :S, Vikram W. has provided almost the solution as mine.
We have to find ∑k≥0(2k+1n) .
Now imagine this like this ,
Suppose you have to choose number of groups of size 2k+1 from n number of students . Now for each k you have some number of groups , symoblically 0≤2k+1≤n , there are (2k+1n) groups of size 2k+1 , so there are ∑k≥0(2k+1n) such type of groups .
Now we do this sum , logically .
For n−1 students there is a choice , for taking him in the group or not. so 2n−1 . Once these choices are made, then the fate of the nth student is completely determined so that the final group size is an odd number. Consequently, there are 2n−1 such committees. □
We know that (KN) is part of the binomial theorem. (x+y)n=(0N)∗xN+(1N)∗xN−1∗y+....(NN)∗yN. Let x and y equal 1 and we see that
2n=(0N)+(1N)+...+(NN).
By halving both sides we see that (1N)+(3N)+(5N)+...=2n−1.
[Note: In order to type (1N)+(3N), you need to use { N \choose 1} + { N \choose 3} as the Latex code, otherwise it doesn't know how to write it up. E.g. it could appear as (1+(3N)N), or any of the other variants - Calvin]
Alternatively, it is known that the sum of N choose 0 through N choose N is 2N. We also know that N choose K is the same thing as (N−KN). So we conclude that N choose 0=N choose N and N choose 1 = N choose N-1 thus the stated problem is half of 2n.
i think the (1-1)^n explanation makes perfect sense, but if you want something "logical" then consider the construction of pascal's triangle. When a row goes to the next row, each term on it is added to two consecutive terms in the next row, and as of course one of these is odd and one is even, the even and odd terms have the same sum. There is also the committee argument which this is pretty much equivalent to, and I'm sure several other clever bijections.
What's notable about the generating function is that it generalizes easily, say by changing to (2-1)^n. These are both special cases of roots of unity filters, which are very intuitive.
Yeah. We consider n objects. Assume you want to make a team out of them consisting of any number of objects. Each object can be given a label 'Yes' or 'No' based on whether it is selected or not. So the total number of possible teams is n times2∗2∗2...∗2=2n
((1+x)^n+(1-x)^n)/2=2^(n-1), for x=1 here n is taken positive complete number.Sum of the combinations of n items taking odd number of items(which is less or equal to the number of items) at a time is 2^(n-1). Example: n=4, 4C1+4C3=8=2^(4-1)=8, and so on.
we know that the total number of subsets of a set containing n elements = 2^n
Again we know that the sum of the total number of odd element subset = the sum of the total number of even element subset
so n C 1 + n C 2 + n C 3 + ... + n C n = 2^n
or , 2 ( n C 1 + n C 3 + n C 5 + ... ) = 2^n
or, n C 1 + n C 3 + n C 5 + ... = 2^n / 2 = 2^(n-1)
we know that the total number of subsets of a set containing n elements is 2^n.
Also, the sum of the subsets containing odd elements = sum of the subsets containing even elements.
So we have ,
n C 1 + n C 3 + n C 5 + n C 7 +....= n C 0 + n C 2 + n C 4 + n C 6 +...
again,
n C 1 + n C 2 + n C 3 + n C 4 + n C 5 + ... n C n = 2^n
or, 2(n C 1 + n C 3 + n C 5 + n C 7 +....) = 2^n
or n C 1 + n C 3 + n C 5 + n C 7 +....= 2^(n-1)
This solution is half 'mathematical', half 'logical'. From binomial expansion the sum of nCr = 2n. Now the sum given is equal to the sum that has been removed as nCr = nC(n-r) (i.e. nC1 = nC(n-1)). Hence, the sum is equal to 21 * 2n = 2n−1, as required.
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
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to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
Flip n coins. Clearly, there are 2^n strings of head and tails possible.
There are n C 1 strings with exactly 1 head, nC3 with 3 heads, and so on.
Observe that the probability of getting an odd number of heads is precisely half (by a variety of arguments like induction, recursion, or plain obviousness). This gives you the desired result.
Log in to reply
Only, induction and recursive should not be considered as 'logical reasoning'(though of course it is logical. ), and should be considered as 'mathematical reasoning'
That's quite good thinking. I have an argument that'll give us the answer quickly. All we want is the number of odd selections out of a total of n. Fix any object xn out of the n objects. Now the total number of strings possible for the remaining n−1 elements are 2n−1. Take any possible string of the total strings possible. If the set contains odd number of elements, then keep it as it is, otherwise add xn. We see there's a perfect pairing. So we are done!
Take n balls numbered from 1 to n. Take nth ball and put it aside. Split the rest of the n−1 balls into two sets - set A and set B. There are 2n−1 ways to do that which is our R.H.S. Now take nth ball which we have set aside initially and put in to either set A or set B so that number of balls in set A is odd. So, basically we have chosen odd number of balls from n balls in set A, which is the L.H.S. Hence the equation is proved. [EDIT] I should have read the comments first :S, Vikram W. has provided almost the solution as mine.
Actually people wouldn't have been confused if you said "combinatorial proof" instead of "logical explanation".
We have to find ∑k≥0(2k+1n) . Now imagine this like this , Suppose you have to choose number of groups of size 2k+1 from n number of students . Now for each k you have some number of groups , symoblically 0≤2k+1≤n , there are (2k+1n) groups of size 2k+1 , so there are ∑k≥0(2k+1n) such type of groups .
Now we do this sum , logically . For n−1 students there is a choice , for taking him in the group or not. so 2n−1 . Once these choices are made, then the fate of the nth student is completely determined so that the final group size is an odd number. Consequently, there are 2n−1 such committees. □
Another idea: Use the fact that nC0+nC1+...+nCn=2^n and the expansion of 0=(1+(-1))^n by the Binomial Theorem...
We know that (KN) is part of the binomial theorem. (x+y)n=(0N)∗xN+(1N)∗xN−1∗y+....(NN)∗yN. Let x and y equal 1 and we see that 2n=(0N)+(1N)+...+(NN). By halving both sides we see that (1N)+(3N)+(5N)+...=2n−1.
[Note: In order to type (1N)+(3N), you need to use { N \choose 1} + { N \choose 3} as the Latex code, otherwise it doesn't know how to write it up. E.g. it could appear as (1+(3N)N), or any of the other variants - Calvin]
Alternatively, it is known that the sum of N choose 0 through N choose N is 2N. We also know that N choose K is the same thing as (N−KN). So we conclude that N choose 0=N choose N and N choose 1 = N choose N-1 thus the stated problem is half of 2n.
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If n is even e.g. n = 6
nC1 = nC5; but both are in the set. This idea does work for odd n though.
that is, by binomial theorem, ((1+1)^n-(1-1)^n)/2=2^(n-1)
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Not 'logical reasoning', algebraic reasoning.
(2k−1n)=(2k−1n−1)+(2k−2n−1), and as we apply it to all, it becomes the sum of n-1 choose 0 through n-1 choose N-1, so it is 2n−1
i think the (1-1)^n explanation makes perfect sense, but if you want something "logical" then consider the construction of pascal's triangle. When a row goes to the next row, each term on it is added to two consecutive terms in the next row, and as of course one of these is odd and one is even, the even and odd terms have the same sum. There is also the committee argument which this is pretty much equivalent to, and I'm sure several other clever bijections. What's notable about the generating function is that it generalizes easily, say by changing to (2-1)^n. These are both special cases of roots of unity filters, which are very intuitive.
This can also be used to prove why there exists 2n subsets in a set.
Log in to reply
Yeah. We consider n objects. Assume you want to make a team out of them consisting of any number of objects. Each object can be given a label 'Yes' or 'No' based on whether it is selected or not. So the total number of possible teams is n times2∗2∗2...∗2=2n
((1+x)^n+(1-x)^n)/2=2^(n-1), for x=1 here n is taken positive complete number.Sum of the combinations of n items taking odd number of items(which is less or equal to the number of items) at a time is 2^(n-1). Example: n=4, 4C1+4C3=8=2^(4-1)=8, and so on.
we know that the total number of subsets of a set containing n elements = 2^n Again we know that the sum of the total number of odd element subset = the sum of the total number of even element subset so n C 1 + n C 2 + n C 3 + ... + n C n = 2^n or , 2 ( n C 1 + n C 3 + n C 5 + ... ) = 2^n or, n C 1 + n C 3 + n C 5 + ... = 2^n / 2 = 2^(n-1)
we know that the total number of subsets of a set containing n elements is 2^n.
Also, the sum of the subsets containing odd elements = sum of the subsets containing even elements.
So we have ,
n C 1 + n C 3 + n C 5 + n C 7 +....= n C 0 + n C 2 + n C 4 + n C 6 +...
again,
n C 1 + n C 2 + n C 3 + n C 4 + n C 5 + ... n C n = 2^n or, 2(n C 1 + n C 3 + n C 5 + n C 7 +....) = 2^n or n C 1 + n C 3 + n C 5 + n C 7 +....= 2^(n-1)
This solution is half 'mathematical', half 'logical'. From binomial expansion the sum of nCr = 2n. Now the sum given is equal to the sum that has been removed as nCr = nC(n-r) (i.e. nC1 = nC(n-1)). Hence, the sum is equal to 21 * 2n = 2n−1, as required.