I conjecture that , where are positive integers, has an infinite amount of solutions for if and that is the only possible value of if .
I am able to prove the case where , but I am unable to prove the case where .
If you can prove this or find a counter example, please post a comment!
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Proof for case k≤2:
If k=1 clearly n=m which has an infinite amount of solutions.
If k=2,
n2=2m(m+1)2n2=m2+mm2+m−2n2=0m=2−1±1+8n21+8n2=x2x2−8n2=1
This is now a Pell's equation which is well know to have an infinite amount of solutions.
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Have you considered looking at prime factorisations? It might work in the k=3 case.
Could you post the case k≤2? Perhaps something in your solution will inspire