Q - If \(f(x) = \displaystyle\int_1^x \dfrac{\ln t}{1 + t} \text{dt}\) where \(x > 0\) ,
Then the value of x satisfying the equation f(x)+f(x1)=2 is
I attacked the question in this way,
f(x)+f(x1)=2
Differentiating both sides with respect to x.
f′(x)+f′(x1)⋅x2−1=0...1
Applying leibniz theorem in the given integral,
f′(x)=1+xlnxf′(x1)=1+x1ln(x1)=1+x−xlnx
Substituting values of f(x) and f′(x1) in equation 1 ,
1+xlnx=1+xxlnx
x=1
x = 1 is the wrong answer.Can you please help me out where i am wrong?
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Comments
The error in your method is that you differentiated both sides of a non-identical equation. Only functions (implicit or explicit) and identities can be differentiated (this is one of the basic rules of differentiation).
The statement f(x)+f(1/x)=2 is an equation in terms of x which holds true for a finite set of values of x, i.e., the equality here is non-identical. As such, you can't differentiate it w.r.t x.
The answers on this post highlights the fallacy of differentiating an equation which is not an identity.
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Thanks both of you.
I think that you first need to look at the function g(x)=f(x)+f(x1) in general.
Then g′(x)=f′(x)+f′(x1)∗x2−1=1+xln(x)+x(1+x)ln(x)=x(1+x)xlnx+ln(x)=xln(x).
Integrate using the substitution u=ln(x) to find that g(x)=21(ln(x))2+C.
Next, since g(1)=0 we see that C=0, and so g(x)=21(ln(x))2.
Finally, for this to equal 2 we need to have (ln(x))2=4⟹ln(x)=±2,
and so either x=e2 or x=e21.
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I really liked your solution,great observation that g(1)=0 .Thanks!
@Brian Charlesworth , @Sandeep Bhardwaj , @Prasun Biswas , @Calvin Lin , @Pi Han Goh , @Tanishq Varshney , @Otto Bretscher , @Jon Haussmann
I am getting x=e2
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Correct answer is e2 and e−2
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