Given that a1a2⋯an=1 and integers x,y such that x≤y
Prove that a1x+a2x+⋯+anx≤a1y+a2y+⋯+any
EXTENSION: Generalize the condition to sym∑a1a2⋯ak=1 where k is any integer from 1 to n inclusive.
#Algebra
#Power
#Inequality
#PowerMeanInequality
Easy Math Editor
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Comments
By Power Mean theorem
xn1∑aix≤yn1∑aiy ⟺ ∑aiy≥ny/xn(∑aix)y/x
so it suffices to prove that
ny/xn(∑aix)y/x≥∑aix ⟺ (∑aix)(y−x)/x≥n(y−x)/x ⟺ ∑aix≥n
trivial by AM-GM. Equality holds when ai=1 for all i.
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Good manipulation and follow-through.
Note that the condition of x,y are integers is not needed.
Because I'm a fan of just using AM-GM (esp for those starting out with inequalities), I'd like to mention that there is a way to use AM-GM "directly" (with slight creativity).
Hint: Multiply the LHS by 1=(∏ai)ny−x.
Can anyone complete this from here?