In this discussion I will prove the following statement:
If there exists two positive integers both of which can be written as sum of two squares of integers, then there product can also be written as sum of two squares of integers
Proof :
Let two positive integers x and y such that x=a2+b2;y=m2+n2; where all of a,b,m and n are integers
⇒xy=(a2+b2)(m2+n2)⇒xy=a2m2+b2n2+a2n2+b2m2⇒xy=(am+bn)2−2abmn+(an−bm)2+2abmn⇒xy=(am+bn)2+(an−bm)2
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@A Former Brilliant Member
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If n>2 no solution will exist see Fermat's last theorem. If n=2 I have proved for that no solution exists for primes. If n=1 then,
p1+p2=p3
In the above equation, if all of p1,p2,p3 are primes, Then p3>p2;p3>p1 therefore p3 is greater than the 2nd prime ⇒p3>3. ⇒p3 is odd ∴ both p1,p2 can't be odd. Therefore one of them must be an even prime ⇒p1=2 (Assuming p2>p1). And if so 2=p3−p2⇒p1 and p2 are twin primes.
And according to the twin prime conjecture (not proved yet) there are infinitely many such primes.
@Yajat Shamji- Proof for n<0; Let −k=n;k∈Z+p1n+p2n=p3n⇒p1k1+p2k1=p3k1p1kp2kp1k+p2k=p3k1p1kp2k=p3k(p1k+p2k)p1k=p2kp3k(p1k+p2k)⇒p2k∣p3k(p12+p22)⇒Either:p2k∣p3k⇒p2∣p3Or:p2k∣(p1k+p2k)⇒p2k∣p1k⇒p2∣p1
Both of the above statements leads us to conclude that p2 will always divide either of p3,p1
∴ All of p1,p2,p3 can't be prime
Note : a∣b means 'a divides b' or you may translate it as b≡0(moda)
Easy Math Editor
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I have a request for you, @Zakir Husain: Can you prove this:
p1n+p2n=p3n or p1n+p2n=p3n
And p1,p2,p3 are all primes...
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@Yajat Shamji- What to prove?
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Read the edited comment...
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n>2 no solution will exist see Fermat's last theorem. If n=2 I have proved for that no solution exists for primes. If n=1 then, p1+p2=p3 In the above equation, if all of p1,p2,p3 are primes, Then p3>p2;p3>p1 therefore p3 is greater than the 2nd prime ⇒p3>3. ⇒p3 is odd ∴ both p1,p2 can't be odd. Therefore one of them must be an even prime ⇒p1=2 (Assuming p2>p1). And if so 2=p3−p2⇒p1 and p2 are twin primes.
IfAnd according to the twin prime conjecture (not proved yet) there are infinitely many such primes.
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→ - just de-capitalise the R.
Your right arrow is in red - it should look like this:Log in to reply
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And if all is done, make a note on it! I would appreciate it if I was the person behind the idea for the note!
@Zakir Husain
n is integer or not, then just let me know
If you didn't care whether@Yajat Shamji- Proof for n<0; Let −k=n;k∈Z+ p1n+p2n=p3n⇒p1k1+p2k1=p3k1 p1kp2kp1k+p2k=p3k1 p1kp2k=p3k(p1k+p2k) p1k=p2kp3k(p1k+p2k)⇒p2k∣p3k(p12+p22) ⇒Either:p2k∣p3k⇒p2∣p3 Or:p2k∣(p1k+p2k)⇒p2k∣p1k⇒p2∣p1 Both of the above statements leads us to conclude that p2 will always divide either of p3,p1
∴ All of p1,p2,p3 can't be prime
Note : a∣b means 'a divides b' or you may translate it as b≡0(moda)
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Nice! Can you make a note on this and the positive proof...