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2 \times 3
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234
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Let the perfect squares we're looking for have solely n 1's in their base 9 representation. Then, our work amounts to solving the following diophantine equation:
k=0∑n−19k=x2⟹9−19n−1=x2⟹9n−1=8x2(∗)
We note the trivial solutions n=0,1 corresponding to x=0,1 and show that there are no integer solutions for n,x when n>1.
When n>1, WLOG, we can assume that x is positive. Now,
Now, note that only one of x−1 and x+1 is divisible by 3 since otherwise 3 divides their difference (x+1)−(x−1)=2 which is obviously false. Hence, one of the two terms must equal to 32n−2 while the latter term equals to 1. So, we have either x=32n−2+1=0 or x=32n−2−1=2
The first case gives 32n−2=−1 which obviously doesn't have any integer solutions for n and the second case gives 32n−2=3⟹2n−2=1⟹n=3/2 which is not an integer.
Hence, when n>1, there are no integer solutions to equation (∗).
Along with the trivial solutions noted at the beginning, we conclude that the only solutions are n=0,1 with the perfect squares being 0,1 respectively.
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
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to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
Let the perfect squares we're looking for have solely n 1's in their base 9 representation. Then, our work amounts to solving the following diophantine equation:
k=0∑n−19k=x2⟹9−19n−1=x2⟹9n−1=8x2(∗)
We note the trivial solutions n=0,1 corresponding to x=0,1 and show that there are no integer solutions for n,x when n>1.
When n>1, WLOG, we can assume that x is positive. Now,
9n−1=8x2⟹9n−9=8x2−8⟹8×9n−1=8(x2−1)⟹9n−1=x2−1⟹(x−1)(x+1)=32n−2
Now, note that only one of x−1 and x+1 is divisible by 3 since otherwise 3 divides their difference (x+1)−(x−1)=2 which is obviously false. Hence, one of the two terms must equal to 32n−2 while the latter term equals to 1. So, we have either x=32n−2+1=0 or x=32n−2−1=2
The first case gives 32n−2=−1 which obviously doesn't have any integer solutions for n and the second case gives 32n−2=3⟹2n−2=1⟹n=3/2 which is not an integer.
Hence, when n>1, there are no integer solutions to equation (∗).
Along with the trivial solutions noted at the beginning, we conclude that the only solutions are n=0,1 with the perfect squares being 0,1 respectively.
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Technically, 0 in base 9 is 0, which has a '0' digit but no '1' digit in base 9, so only 1 satisfies.