In this discussion I will prove the following statement:
The equation p1n+p2n=p3n will have solutions where n∈Z and all of p1,p2,p3 are primes if and only if n=1.
Case 1 n>2
No need to prove this case, because any equation of the form an+bn=cn where n>2;n∈Z;a∈Z;b∈Z;c∈Z
don't have any solutions see Fermat's last theorem
Case 2 n=2
Let us assume there exists primes p1,p2,p3∣p12+p22=p32p12=p32−p22=(p3−p2)(p3+p2)
Now pairwise factors of p12 are (p12,1),(p1,p1) now if p3−p2=p1⇒p3−p2=p1=p3+p2⇒p2=0 which is not possible
∴p3−p2=1;p3+p2=p12∵p3−p2<p3+p2
But this also leads to contradiction because according to it p3=p2+1 which is not possible for p3>3
(∵ if p3 is odd then p2 will be divisible by 2 and vice versa)
Therefore no solution exists for p3>3. If p3=3⇒p2=2 but p32−p22=32−22=5⇒p12=5⇒p1=5,−5 which also leads to contradiction.
Therefore no solution exists for n=2
Case 3 n=1
Let us assume there exists primes p1,p2,p3∣p1+p2=p3.
p1+p2=p3
In the above equation, if all of p1,p2,p3 are primes, then p3>p2;p3>p1 therefore p3 is greater than the 2nd prime ⇒p3>3.
⇒p3 is odd ∴ both p1,p2 can't be odd.
Therefore one of them must be an even prime ⇒p1=2 (Assuming p2>p1). And if so 2=p3−p2⇒p1 and p2 are twin primes.
And according to the twin prime conjecture (not proved yet) there are infinitely many such primes.
Case 4 n=0
As you will be seeing for n=0p1n+p2n=p3n⇒p10+p20=p20⇒1+1=1⇒2=1 which leads to contradiction.
∴ no solutions exists for n=0
Case 5 n<0
Let −k=n;k∈Z+
Let us assume there exists primes p1,p2,p3∣p1n+p2n=p3np1n+p2n=p3n⇒p1k1+p2k1=p3k1p1kp2kp1k+p2k=p3k1p1kp2k=p3k(p1k+p2k)p1k=p2kp3k(p1k+p2k)⇒p2k∣p3k(p12+p22)⇒Either:p2k∣p3k⇒p2∣p3Or:p2k∣(p1k+p2k)⇒p2k∣p1k⇒p2∣p1
Both of the above statements leads us to conclude that p2 will always divide either of p3,p1
∴ All of p1,p2,p3 can't be prime
Note :
a∣b means 'a divides b' or you may translate it as b≡0(moda)
Special thanks to Yajat Shamji to raise these type of questions
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@Yajat Shamji and @Mahdi Raza - I'm already having a handful topics to be written as notes, but I'm not getting enough time for them. But thanks for suggestions
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Comments
@Yajat Shamji -See here
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Thanks...
What about Euler's identity (fully elaborated) proof?
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Proof for euler's identity is given on the brilliant itself see here, I also have the same proof for the formula.
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here for quadratic as well as higher degree polynomials
It is also giveLog in to reply
Can any arcprime (inverse prime) make a infinite series that is equivalent to a rational, transcendental or irrational number? Full proof...
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Highly composite number which James Grime referred as 'Anti-prime here.
I don't know about it, but know something calledLog in to reply
p−1= p1
Can p1 be used in:
n=0∑∞p1
Such that it produces a rational, irrational or transcendental number?
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∞ see here it was proved by Leonhard Euler
The sum of reciprocals of all primes is equal toLog in to reply
p1,p2,p3 that satisfies for any n:
Well, I'm out! But about this note, can you do a note that proves that there is primesp1n+p2n=p3n+1
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22+112=53
2,11,5 are primes
Was in Squarimes numerical proof for primes ≤20
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n=2 there are infinitely many see: p12+p32=p33⇒p33≡1(mod4)⇒p3≡1(mod4)
ForThe only condition is that p3≡1(mod4) or p3=2. If p3=2⇒p2=p1=2
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Newton identity
@Yajat Shamji and @Mahdi Raza - I'm already having a handful topics to be written as notes, but I'm not getting enough time for them. But thanks for suggestions