This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science
related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should
explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments
should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
Use the emojis to react to an explanation, whether you're congratulating a job well done , or just really confused .
Ask specific questions about the challenge or the steps in somebody's explanation. Well-posed questions can add a lot to the discussion, but posting "I don't understand!" doesn't help anyone.
Try to contribute something new to the discussion, whether it is an extension, generalization or other idea related to the challenge.
Stay on topic — we're all here to learn more about math and science, not to hear about your favorite get-rich-quick scheme or current world events.
Markdown
Appears as
*italics* or _italics_
italics
**bold** or __bold__
bold
- bulleted - list
bulleted
list
1. numbered 2. list
numbered
list
Note: you must add a full line of space before and after lists for them to show up correctly
# I indented these lines
# 4 spaces, and now they show
# up as a code block.
print "hello world"
# I indented these lines
# 4 spaces, and now they show
# up as a code block.
print "hello world"
Math
Appears as
Remember to wrap math in \( ... \) or \[ ... \] to ensure proper formatting.
2 \times 3
2×3
2^{34}
234
a_{i-1}
ai−1
\frac{2}{3}
32
\sqrt{2}
2
\sum_{i=1}^3
∑i=13
\sin \theta
sinθ
\boxed{123}
123
Comments
By Fermat's Little Theorem, 7∣p6−1. By Euler's theorem, 9∣p6−1 and p4≡1(mod8). Since odd squares leave residue 1 modulo 8, we have p6=p4⋅p2≡1⋅1=1(mod8). Finally because 7,8,9 are pairwise coprime, their product 504∣p6−1.
504=23×32×7 and by checking we can show the 6th residues mod7,8,9 are either 0,1 but since p is prime p6=1 mod 504 (by the Chinese remainder theorem as 7,8,9 are coprime) and hence we are done
@Daniel Remo
–
Also here I realised you don't really need it: ignoring the last step we have that 7,8,9∣p6−1 and since they are coprime we know then that (7×8×9)∣p6−1
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
*italics*
or_italics_
**bold**
or__bold__
paragraph 1
paragraph 2
[example link](https://brilliant.org)
> This is a quote
\(
...\)
or\[
...\]
to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
By Fermat's Little Theorem, 7∣p6−1. By Euler's theorem, 9∣p6−1 and p4≡1(mod8). Since odd squares leave residue 1 modulo 8, we have p6=p4⋅p2≡1⋅1=1(mod8). Finally because 7,8,9 are pairwise coprime, their product 504∣p6−1.
504=23×32×7 and by checking we can show the 6th residues mod7,8,9 are either 0,1 but since p is prime p6=1 mod 504 (by the Chinese remainder theorem as 7,8,9 are coprime) and hence we are done
Log in to reply
What is Chinese remainder theorem.??? Can you give me a link to any note..??
Log in to reply
Upon a quick google, http://www.math.tamu.edu/~jon.pitts/courses/2005c/470/supplements/chinese.pdf looks like the best link to explain it to you
Log in to reply
7,8,9∣p6−1 and since they are coprime we know then that (7×8×9)∣p6−1
Also here I realised you don't really need it: ignoring the last step we have that