Problem from a Theorem

If pp is an odd prime number, then prove that ((p12)!)2+(1)p12 \left( \left( \dfrac{p-1}{2} \right)! \right)^2 + (-1)^\frac{p-1}{2} is divisible by pp.

#NumberTheory

Note by Fahim Shahriar Shakkhor
6 years, 11 months ago

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Comments

From Wilson's Theorem, (p1)!1(modp)(p-1)! \equiv -1 (\mod p)

1×2×........×p12×p+12×..........×(p2)×(p1)1(modp)\Rightarrow 1\times2\times........\times \frac{p-1}{2}\times\frac{p+1}{2} \times ..........\times (p-2)\times (p-1) \equiv -1 (\mod p)

1×2×........×p12×(p12)×..........×(2)×(1)1(modp)\Rightarrow 1\times2\times........\times \frac{p-1}{2}\times(-\frac{p-1}{2}) \times ..........\times (-2)\times (-1) \equiv -1 (\mod p)

((p12)!)2×(1)p121(modp)\Rightarrow ((\frac{p-1}{2})!)^2 \times (-1)^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \equiv -1 (\mod p)

((p12)!)2(1)×(1)p12(modp)\Rightarrow ((\frac{p-1}{2})!)^2 \equiv (-1)\times(-1)^{\frac{p-1}{2}} (\mod p)

((p12)!)2+(1)p120(modp)\Rightarrow ((\frac{p-1}{2})!)^2 + (-1)^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \equiv 0 (\mod p)

Fahim Shahriar Shakkhor - 6 years, 11 months ago

Nice and tricky!

For convenience, we let p=2n+1p=2n+1 and so we wanna prove that (n!)2=n!n!(1)n+1(modp)(n!)^2=n!\cdot n!\equiv (-1)^{n+1}\pmod p. Now note that nnp=(pn)(modp)n\equiv n-p=-(p-n)\pmod p. So

n!=k=1nkk=1n(pk)=(1)nk=1n(pk)=(1)nk=1n(2n+1k)=(1)nk=n+12nk(modp).n!=\prod_{k=1}^n k \equiv \prod_{k=1}^n -(p-k)=(-1)^n \prod_{k=1}^n (p-k)=(-1)^n \prod_{k=1}^n (2n+1-k)=(-1)^n \prod_{k=n+1}^{2n} k\pmod p.

And hence we have

n!n!n!(1)nk=n+12nk=(1)n(2n)!=(1)n(p1)!(1)n(1)=(1)n+1(modp)n!\cdot n! \equiv n!\cdot (-1)^n \prod_{k=n+1}^{2n} k=(-1)^n\cdot (2n)!=(-1)^n\cdot (p-1)!\equiv (-1)^n\cdot (-1)=(-1)^{n+1}\pmod p

and the last congruence step follows by Wilson's theorem.

Jubayer Nirjhor - 6 years, 11 months ago
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