Guys please help me solve this problem(it is troubling me).......
Let f:R+ --> R be defined as f(x)=x + (1/x) -⌊ x + (1/x) ⌋.
It is required to prove that there are infintely many rational numbers u so that
∙0<u<1,
∙u,f(u),f(f(u))arealldistinct,and
∙f(f(u))=f(f(f(u)))
#HelpMe!
#MathProblem
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Is there no one who can help me out with this problem ? Not even Calvin sir ?
a nice problem you gave but sorry i could not solve it...hope anyone comes forward to confront this problem...:(