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Comments
[As Zi Song pointed out, your discussion should say that 31005+1 is divisible by 2011. Please update that.]
I'm assuming that you are familiar with concepts like Euler's Theorem and (Gauss Law of) Quadratic Reciprocity. You should be able to fill in the details. This approach is pretty standard.
[As Sambit suggested] Since 2011 is prime, we have ϕ(2011)=2010. By Euler's theorem, we know that 32010≡1(mod2011). Let 31005=x, then 0≡x2−1≡(x−1)(x+1)(mod2011), so x≡±1(mod2011) (since 2011 is prime).
If x≡1(mod2011), then [3503]2≡31006≡3(mod2011), so 3 is a quadratic residue. However, since 2011≡7(mod12), this contradicts the fact that the Legendre symbol(20113)=−1.
Pop quiz: Does this show that 3 is a primitive root modulo 2011? Why, or why not?
My deepest apology, the title is what I want to prove. Many thanks to Zi Song Y.
@Bhargav D: This is my approach to the original problem.
Let A={1,2,...,1005}.
Consider two sets B={x2−3∣x∈A};C={−3y2∣y∈A}.
It's easy to see that:
No two elements of B are ≡(mod2011). The same for C.
No element of C is divisible by 2011. The same for B (1).
(1) is not obvious and needs to be proven. Still the only way I can think of is, assume there is a number x in A satisfying x2−3⋮2011⇒x2≡3⇒x2010≡31005≡−1, which contradicts Fermat's theory x2010≡1(mod2011).
So to prove (1) we need to prove 31005≡−1, which is true but ....
Continuing with the original problem. We consider 2 cases:
Case 1: There are two numbers a∈B,b∈C satisfying a≡b⇒x3−3≡−3y2 (QED).
Case 2: For all a∈B,b∈C, a and b are not ≡(mod2011):
Since ∣B∣=∣C∣=1005⇒B∪C is a set of 2010 elements, and can be expressed as T={a1,a2,...,a2010} where ai≡i(mod2011).
Therefore x∈T∑x≡i=1∑2010i≡0(mod2011)
However, by calculation, ∑x∈Tx is not divisible by 2011.
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
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to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
[As Zi Song pointed out, your discussion should say that 31005+1 is divisible by 2011. Please update that.]
I'm assuming that you are familiar with concepts like Euler's Theorem and (Gauss Law of) Quadratic Reciprocity. You should be able to fill in the details. This approach is pretty standard.
[As Sambit suggested] Since 2011 is prime, we have ϕ(2011)=2010. By Euler's theorem, we know that 32010≡1(mod2011). Let 31005=x, then 0≡x2−1≡(x−1)(x+1)(mod2011), so x≡±1(mod2011) (since 2011 is prime).
If x≡1(mod2011), then [3503]2≡31006≡3(mod2011), so 3 is a quadratic residue. However, since 2011≡7(mod12), this contradicts the fact that the Legendre symbol (20113)=−1.
Pop quiz: Does this show that 3 is a primitive root modulo 2011? Why, or why not?
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You have my gratitude, Calvin. Legendre is the least thing I think of, but I guess it's inevitable in some cases. A good lesson for me.
@ann huy N.,can u explain me your approach to the problem?
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My deepest apology, the title is what I want to prove. Many thanks to Zi Song Y.
@Bhargav D: This is my approach to the original problem. Let A={1,2,...,1005}.
Consider two sets B={x2−3∣x∈A};C={−3y2∣y∈A}.
It's easy to see that:
No two elements of B are ≡(mod2011). The same for C.
No element of C is divisible by 2011. The same for B (1).
(1) is not obvious and needs to be proven. Still the only way I can think of is, assume there is a number x in A satisfying x2−3⋮2011⇒x2≡3⇒x2010≡31005≡−1, which contradicts Fermat's theory x2010≡1(mod2011).
So to prove (1) we need to prove 31005≡−1, which is true but ....
Continuing with the original problem. We consider 2 cases:
Case 1: There are two numbers a∈B,b∈C satisfying a≡b⇒x3−3≡−3y2 (QED).
Case 2: For all a∈B,b∈C, a and b are not ≡(mod2011):
Since ∣B∣=∣C∣=1005⇒B∪C is a set of 2010 elements, and can be expressed as T={a1,a2,...,a2010} where ai≡i(mod2011).
Therefore x∈T∑x≡i=1∑2010i≡0(mod2011) However, by calculation, ∑x∈Tx is not divisible by 2011.
(Its exact result is −3015−2∑i=11005i2 )
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This problem depends on how you think about it, and what you know.
For example, I simply set x=2,y≡±3502(mod2011) (where I use ± to ensure that it lies in the domain). This gives
x2+3y2−3≡4+3×31004−3≡31005+1≡0(mod2011)
thanks.
psi(2011)=2010=2*1005. Maybe you can use this.
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2011∣31005+1 or 2011∣31005−1
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@Anh Huy N. Do you want to prove the latter or the former? Your title contradicts what you said.
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