prove it!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Prove that:-

For any natural number n:- n2(n!)1n1n \geq 2(n!)^{\frac{1}{n}}-1

Please post a non induction proof

#Algebra #Inequalities #Proofs #FindX #FindXandY

Note by Aman Sharma
6 years, 9 months ago

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1 vote

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Comments

Take numbers 1,2,3.....n Then A.MG.MA.M \geq G.M

Krishna Sharma - 6 years, 9 months ago

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I also did in the same way

Aman Sharma - 6 years, 9 months ago

This can be re-arranged to this inequality

(1+1n)n2knkn{ \left( 1+\frac { 1 }{ n } \right) }^{ n }\ge 2\displaystyle\prod _{ k }^{ n }{ \frac { k }{ n } }

For n=1n=1, we have 2=22=2. Thereafter, the left side approaches ee while the right side drops towards 00

Michael Mendrin - 6 years, 9 months ago

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Realy intresting proof

Aman Sharma - 6 years, 9 months ago
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