Most of us know of the fact that n=1∑∞n21=6π2 . Euler has calculated the exact this sum in his time. Eulers solution to Basel problem. Today we are going to prove it using calculus, first by showing that a certain double integral of a function over a region is equivalent to n=1∑∞n21 when expressed as its infinite series , then by directly finding the exact value of double integral using transformations . Since both forms are equivalent we can prove the sum.
Consider the double integral ∫01∫011−xy1dydx over the rectangular region bounded by points (0,0),(0,1),(1,1),(1,0).
Now we express this function as an infinite series n=0∑∞(xy)n , so the integral becomes ∫01∫01n=0∑∞(xy)ndydx
∫01n=0∑∞(n+1xnyn+1)dx∣∣∣01
∫01n=0∑∞(n+1xn)dx
n=0∑∞((n+1)2xn)∣∣∣01=n=1∑∞n21 .
Now we are going to find the definite integral of this function in another way:
First we transform the following the region to another space which we will call u,v space using the following equations x=2u−v,y=2u+v. This transformation is linear therefore the transformed region will also be a rectangular region. The only difference is that it is rotated . The jacobian for the above transformation is det∣∣∣∣∣2121−2121∣∣∣∣∣=1
The points bounding the transformed regions :
(0,0)in(x,y)=(0,0)in(u,v)
(0,1)in(x,y)=(22,22)in(u,v)
(1,0)in(x,y)=(22,2−2)in(u,v)
(1,1)in(x,y)=(2,0)in(u,v)
Now we rewrite the double integral:
∫∫1−((2u−v)(2u+v))1dudv
∫∫2−u2+v22dvdu
from the transformation we can split this integral into 2 as following
\(\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}} \int_{-u}^{u} \frac{2}{2-u^{2} +v^{2}}dv du +\displaystyle \int_{\frac{\sqrt{2}}
This is because the region up to point u=22 is enclosed within lines v=u and v=−u and the region from this point to u=2 is enclosed within lines v=2−u and v=u−2
Now we can iterate through this double integral first w.r.t v and then u
\(\displaystyle \int_{-u}^{u}\frac{2}{\left(2-u^{2}\right) +v^{2}} dv =\displaystyle \int_{-u}^{u}\frac{2}{\left(2-u^{2}\right)
\left(1+\frac{v^{2}}{2-u^{2}}\right)} dv\)
u is independent to v. 2−u22arctan(2−u2v)∣∣∣−uu
=2−u22arctan(2−u2u)−2−u22arctan(2−u2−u)
arctan−x=−arctanx
Therefore it is equal to
2−u24arctan(2−u2u).
Now next iteration
∫0222−u24arctan(2−u2u)du
∫02221−2u24arctan(21−2u2u)du
Substitute 2u=sinθ
du=2cosθdθ
∫0222cosθ4arctan(tanθ)2cosθdθ
arctan(tanθ)=θ
∫4θdθ=2θ2
Limits in terms of theta are: sinθ=0 to sinθ=21,θ=0 to θ=6π
2θ∣∣∣06π=18π2(1)
Now we do the second part of the split integral :
∫222∫u−22−u2−u2+v22dvdu
Again we iterate through v first and then u
Anti derivative for integration w.r.t v is same ,only the limits change.
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Now, I will tell you another method of proving the above which I did in my own way. The Taylor series expansion,
sin(x)=x-x^3/3!+x^5/5!........ creates an algebraic series of this trigonometric function in the form of a polynomial.
In other words, I am trying to visualise sin(x) as a polynomial through this series.
Thus I say that sin(x)=Lt n-> infinity ((-1)^nx((x^2/pi^2)-1)((x^2/4pi^2)-1).........((x^2/(npi)^2)-1)) so that this polynomial vanishes at x=npi and has relative extrema at odd multiples of pi/2(through logarithmic differentiation) just like sin(x). Since the Taylor series and my assumed polynomial are an identity, thus you can just compare the coefficient of x^3 of both series and see that : -1/6 = -(1/pi^2)*(1+1/4+1/9+.....)
=>(pi^2)/6=1+1/4+1/9.....
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Now, I will tell you another method of proving the above which I did in my own way. The Taylor series expansion, sin(x)=x-x^3/3!+x^5/5!........ creates an algebraic series of this trigonometric function in the form of a polynomial. In other words, I am trying to visualise sin(x) as a polynomial through this series. Thus I say that sin(x)=Lt n-> infinity ((-1)^nx((x^2/pi^2)-1)((x^2/4pi^2)-1).........((x^2/(npi)^2)-1)) so that this polynomial vanishes at x=npi and has relative extrema at odd multiples of pi/2(through logarithmic differentiation) just like sin(x). Since the Taylor series and my assumed polynomial are an identity, thus you can just compare the coefficient of x^3 of both series and see that : -1/6 = -(1/pi^2)*(1+1/4+1/9+.....) =>(pi^2)/6=1+1/4+1/9.....
@Amal Hari, does this mean n=1∑∞n26=π?
Really cool way of proving the series. Using the same integral 2 different ways is impressive.