I already know about the Pythagorean Theorem, where \(a^2 + b^2 = c^2\). Now I'm wondering if there can be a solution where \(\frac {1}{a^2} + \frac {1} {b^2} = \frac {1}{c^2}\). Is this possible?
Note: If this question has already been asked, please show me a link where this question was asked so I can look at that.
If this is impossible tell me how it is impossible to get a solution (or solutions) for this equation.
If this is possible tell me how it is possible to get a solution (or solutions) for this equation.
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We can put it into the form of
a2+b2=(cab)2
of which one answer is c=a2+b2ab. Some answer of (a, b, c) for natural number x is
(a,b,c)=(15x,20x,12x),(175x,600x,168x)
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for example:
x = 3, y = 4, z = 5
a = 20, b = 15, c = 40
a=20,b=15,c=12
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Thank you very much!
Cool!