Suppose for a prime \(p > 5\), the decimal representation of \(\frac{1}{p} = 0.\overline{a_1a_2\cdots a_r}\), where the over line represents a recurring decimal. Prove that \(10^r \equiv 1 \pmod{p}\).
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It's pointless to consider an prime under five as each will either never repeat, or repeat continuously and is trivial. 2 and 5 will never repeat, and checking 3 if easy as it is just .3 repeating. (Sorry, awful at using LaTeX, not gonna try.)
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p1=0.a1a2…ar
Thus,
p10r=0.a1a2…ar×10r=a1a2…ar.a1a2…ar
Subtracting the two equations,
p10r−1=a1a2…ar
⇒10r−1≡0(modp)
⇒10r≡1(modp)
Hence, Proved. I dont know why there has to be p>5..Could somebody explain that to me?
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As choice of p=2,5 yields 1/p as non-recurring decimals
Where are using the fact that p is a prime?
I think that it has to be p=2,5. I tried 3 and it still works.
It's pointless to consider an prime under five as each will either never repeat, or repeat continuously and is trivial. 2 and 5 will never repeat, and checking 3 if easy as it is just .3 repeating. (Sorry, awful at using LaTeX, not gonna try.)
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Well, it still is valid though.
Here (a1a2⋅⋅⋅ar) denotes place value form.
p1=0.a1a2⋅⋅⋅ar=10r−1(a1a2⋅⋅⋅ar) ⟹ 10r−1=p×(a1a2⋅⋅⋅ar)≡0(modp)
Exactly, it's trivial if you use formula for infinite G.P.