Hey,guys i once saw this problem at my national math olympiad ans wanted to know if it is stated right: Consider the infinite sequence defined as : \(a_1=2\),\(a_2=3\) and \(a_{k+2}=\frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}\) for \(k >= 3\).Find \(a_{2015}\).Is it solvable?
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2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
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\boxed{123}
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Yes, it is solvable. Also, Hint:- Try solving for a few terms.
Proceed,please!
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a1=2,a2=3,a3=23,a4=21,a5=31,a6=32,a7=2,a8=3
So the sequence is cyclic every 6 terms.
Therefore, a2015=a5=31
now i know