Let \(x,y\) be positive real numbers. Prove that \[\dfrac{\lfloor x\rfloor+\lfloor y\rfloor}{\lfloor x+y\rfloor}\le \dfrac{\lceil x\rceil+\lceil y\rceil}{\lceil x+y\rceil}\]
Where ⌊…⌋ is the greatest int function and ⌈…⌉ is the smallest int function.
In general, prove that for reals x1,x2…xn, that ⌊i=1∑nxi⌋i=1∑n⌊xi⌋≤⌈i=1∑nxi⌉i=1∑n⌈xi⌉
#Algebra
#Integers
#CeilingFunction
#Inequality
#FloorFunction
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Cool problem! I think this is a valid approach:
Looking at the first equation, we see that equality is attained if x and y are both integers, which would make the equation just 1≤1. Split this into two cases:
Case 1:
⌊x⌋+⌊y⌋<⌊x+y⌋. In this case, obviously neither x or y are integers otherwise their sum would be the same as the floor of their sum. Thus the numerator of the RHS will become ⌊x⌋+1+⌊y⌋+1 and denominator ⌊x⌋+⌊y⌋+1. Obviously the LHS will be <1 and the RHS >1 so the inequality is held. Can we generalize this inequality for the general case? Yes, because for each extra term the LHS will still be <1 and the denominator >1 and the reverse on the RHS.
Case 2:
Both x and y are integers. The inequality becomes
x+yx+y≤x+yx+y
which is obviously true. You'll see how it's really just an extension of Case 3. It will clearly also be true even for the general case given.
Case 3:
⌊x⌋+⌊y⌋=⌊x+y⌋. This will be true as long as the fractional part of x and y do not have a sum >1, unlike Case 1. So, like, x could be 3.3 and y could be 1.6, and 0.6+0.3≱1. In this case, the inequality becomes
x+y−frac(x)−frac(y)x+y−frac(x)−frac(y)≤x+y+1−frac(x)−frac(y)x+y+1−frac(x)−frac(y)
where frac(n) represents the fractional part, or just n−⌊n⌋. Obviously, both sides are equal and the inequality is satisfied. We see that for all x1,x2,x3,… this is satisfied as well since there will always be that extra +1 in the numerator and denominator of the RHS since the sum of the fractional parts is <1.
It is impossible for ⌊x⌋ to be greater than ⌊x+y⌋ because the largest possible value of frac(x)+frac(y)=0.999⋯+0.999… which is <2.
Quod erat demonstratum.
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Simpler:
Let x=x1+xf and y=y1+yf where x1,y1 are integers and xf,yf are the fractional part of x,y respectively.
Note that ⌊x⌋+⌊y⌋≤⌊x+y⌋ because x1+y1≤x1+y1+⌊xf+yf⌋
This equation becomes ⌊x+y⌋⌊x⌋+⌊y⌋≤1
Also, note that ⌈x⌉+⌈y⌉≥⌈x+y⌉ because x1+1+y1+1≥x1+y1+⌈xf+yf⌉
This equation becomes ⌈x+y⌉⌈x⌉+⌈y⌉≥1
Putting the two equations together, we have ⌊x+y⌋⌊x⌋+⌊y⌋≤1≤⌈x+y⌉⌈x⌉+⌈y⌉
and we are done. □
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Mmm. Essentially, you're boiling down my solution and going backwards. Cool! :D
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@Finn Hulse @Daniel Liu
I am so bad at proofs? Help me how can i practice and where should i start.Log in to reply
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That's what I did. I was gong to post a hint.
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Prove ⌊3x⌋=⌊x⌋+⌊x+31⌋+⌊x+32⌋
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n=3.
That is just Hermite's Identity forLog in to reply
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i=0∑n−1⌈x+ni⌉=⌈nx⌉+n−1
Indeed,It is not hard to prove from Hermite's Identity. there is no name for it, so you are better off proving it.
How can you claim that ⌊x⌋+⌊y⌋≤⌊x+y⌋⟹⌊x+y⌋⌊x⌋+⌊y⌋≤1 given that ⌊x+y⌋ can be negative? I can see why it is true when it is positive, but it looks false otherwise.
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Hint:
⌊n⌋≤⌈n⌉≤⌊n⌋+1
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I think the < should be changed to a ≤.
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No, cos it isn't possible.
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⌈3.5⌉=⌊3.5⌋+1⟶4=3+1.
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I Think the Answer is 56