Could someone kindly explain to me the passages underlying the result of the following division... How does
(n+2)^n\times(n+2)!\leq (2n+2)!
when divided by (2n+2)! become
\frac{n+2}{2n+2}\times\frac{n+2}{2n+1}\times...\times\frac{n+2}{n+3} \leq 1
I am concerned about the left side of the inequality.
Thank you very much.
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Hint: Show that (n+2)!(2n+2)!=(2n+2)(2n+1)⋯(n+3).
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Dear Pi Han Goh... thank you for your reply. I have tried, but am not able. I am just beginning to learn about these types of expressions. Could you show me how you would do it?
Thank you again.
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Actually I got it...!!!! Thank you!!!!!!!