This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science
related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should
explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments
should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
Use the emojis to react to an explanation, whether you're congratulating a job well done , or just really confused .
Ask specific questions about the challenge or the steps in somebody's explanation. Well-posed questions can add a lot to the discussion, but posting "I don't understand!" doesn't help anyone.
Try to contribute something new to the discussion, whether it is an extension, generalization or other idea related to the challenge.
Stay on topic — we're all here to learn more about math and science, not to hear about your favorite get-rich-quick scheme or current world events.
Markdown
Appears as
*italics* or _italics_
italics
**bold** or __bold__
bold
- bulleted - list
bulleted
list
1. numbered 2. list
numbered
list
Note: you must add a full line of space before and after lists for them to show up correctly
# I indented these lines
# 4 spaces, and now they show
# up as a code block.
print "hello world"
# I indented these lines
# 4 spaces, and now they show
# up as a code block.
print "hello world"
Math
Appears as
Remember to wrap math in \( ... \) or \[ ... \] to ensure proper formatting.
2 \times 3
2×3
2^{34}
234
a_{i-1}
ai−1
\frac{2}{3}
32
\sqrt{2}
2
\sum_{i=1}^3
∑i=13
\sin \theta
sinθ
\boxed{123}
123
Comments
On [0,π/2], consider the two functions : f(x)=sinx−x, and : g(x)=tanx−x.
f′(x)=cosx−1≤0, which means that f(x)≤f(0)=0.
And : g′(x)=sec2x−1≤0, which means that g(x)≥g(0)=0.
And since these two function are not constant on any open interval we get sharp inequalities on the open interval (0,π/2), which get us to what we want.
I can't draw a circle here, the whole idea is for a point M on the first quadrant (and not on (1,0) ) of the unit circle, the arc from (1,0) to M is longer than the distance between M and the x-axis which gives us sinx<x.
A similar approach would be with the other side of the inequality.
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
*italics*
or_italics_
**bold**
or__bold__
paragraph 1
paragraph 2
[example link](https://brilliant.org)
> This is a quote
\(
...\)
or\[
...\]
to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
On [0,π/2], consider the two functions : f(x)=sinx−x, and : g(x)=tanx−x.
f′(x)=cosx−1≤0, which means that f(x)≤f(0)=0.
And : g′(x)=sec2x−1≤0, which means that g(x)≥g(0)=0.
And since these two function are not constant on any open interval we get sharp inequalities on the open interval (0,π/2), which get us to what we want.
Log in to reply
Do you know a non-calculus approach to this problem?
Log in to reply
We can use Maclaurin expansion of sinx.
I can't draw a circle here, the whole idea is for a point M on the first quadrant (and not on (1,0) ) of the unit circle, the arc from (1,0) to M is longer than the distance between M and the x-axis which gives us sinx<x. A similar approach would be with the other side of the inequality.
By looking at the graphs of sinx , tanx and x we can say it is true.