We have some wild approximation, sin(1) is approximately π/180 when measured in degrees. sin(1/2) is approximately π/360. sin(1/180) is approximately π/32400. Now the pattern you see is simply sin(1/x)=π/(180x) for x being an integer greater than or equal to 1. Again as another property for large x , 180xsin(1/x)=π when measured in degrees. Another one is tan(1/x) is approximately sin(1/x) for x being an integer greater than or equal to 1.Hence concluding , Area of a circle = 180x sin(1/x) times radius squared for x being greater than or equal to 1 and when measured in degrees.
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Relevant article: Maclaurin series.
It is true that we can use the Maclaurin series to prove it but the problem for me was that I didn't knew anything about infinite series when I proved it.You see I proved it in a more Pythagorean way and I would like to send my own proof.