(It seems trivial to me, so I don't know if this is correct. Can anyone help me write a program to check this?)
So for many (yes, this is the reason I ask for a program) fractions \(\frac { a }{ b } =0.\overline { { x }_{ 1 }{ x }_{ 2 }...{ x }_{ n } } \) in which \(b>2\) is a prime and \((a,b)=1\), I found out that \(b-1\) is divisible by \(n\). I've checked it for about 50 numbers and they all seem correct. However, nothing is correct without a proof, so I'm stuck. Can anyone please explain why this works???
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Your claim is wrong if b=5.
If b=2,5, then 10b−1≡1(modb) by Fermat's little theorem, so 10b−1−1≡0(modb). Thus ba=10b−1−1x for some integer x, so clearly its decimal representation will be x repeated every b−1 digits. Thus the period n must divide b−1.
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Thanks for the proof. Anyways, I think that 1/5=0.200... so it should have a period of 1. Where was my mistake?
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It's not in the form 0.x1x2…xn as you described. It's in the form 0.y1y2…ymx1x2…xn. (In the latter case, all b=0 works, not necessarily those relatively prime to 10.)
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