Someone must have discovered this...

(It seems trivial to me, so I don't know if this is correct. Can anyone help me write a program to check this?)

So for many (yes, this is the reason I ask for a program) fractions \(\frac { a }{ b } =0.\overline { { x }_{ 1 }{ x }_{ 2 }...{ x }_{ n } } \) in which \(b>2\) is a prime and \((a,b)=1\), I found out that \(b-1\) is divisible by \(n\). I've checked it for about 50 numbers and they all seem correct. However, nothing is correct without a proof, so I'm stuck. Can anyone please explain why this works???

#NumberTheory

Note by Steven Jim
3 years, 9 months ago

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Comments

Your claim is wrong if b=5b = 5.

If b2,5b \neq 2, 5, then 10b11(modb)10^{b-1} \equiv 1 \pmod b by Fermat's little theorem, so 10b110(modb)10^{b-1} - 1 \equiv 0 \pmod b. Thus ab=x10b11\frac{a}{b} = \frac{x}{10^{b-1} - 1} for some integer xx, so clearly its decimal representation will be xx repeated every b1b-1 digits. Thus the period nn must divide b1b-1.

Ivan Koswara - 3 years, 9 months ago

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Thanks for the proof. Anyways, I think that 1/5=0.200... so it should have a period of 1. Where was my mistake?

Steven Jim - 3 years, 9 months ago

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It's not in the form 0.x1x2xn0.\overline{x_1 x_2 \ldots x_n} as you described. It's in the form 0.y1y2ymx1x2xn0.y_1 y_2 \ldots y_m \overline{x_1 x_2 \ldots x_n}. (In the latter case, all b0b \neq 0 works, not necessarily those relatively prime to 10.)

Ivan Koswara - 3 years, 9 months ago

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@Ivan Koswara Oh yeah. Thanks a lot.

Steven Jim - 3 years, 9 months ago
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