Statement begs for proof

Hey guys, this is something little I observed:

If aa and bb are positive integers, then the following holds. if aa divides bb, then (ba)(b-a) can never divide (b+a)(b+a) provided b>3ab>3a. Is this statement obvious? if no please prove it.

#NumberTheory

Note by Benjamin Ononogbu
5 years, 2 months ago

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Comments

ab,b>3aa|b, b \gt 3a, implies that b=nab = na for some positive integer n>3n \gt 3. So

ba=naa=(n1)ab - a = na - a = (n - 1)a and b+a=(n+1)ab + a = (n + 1)a.

Then b+aba=(n+1)a(n1)a=n+1n1=1+2n1\dfrac{b + a}{b - a} = \dfrac{(n + 1)a}{(n - 1)a} = \dfrac{n + 1}{n - 1} = 1 + \dfrac{2}{n - 1},

which can only be an integer when (n1)2(n - 1)|2. This only occurs when either n1=1n=2n - 1 = 1 \to n = 2 or n1=2n=3n - 1 = 2 \to n = 3, so with the condition that n>3n \gt 3 we can never have (ba)(b+a)(b - a)|(b + a).

Brian Charlesworth - 5 years, 2 months ago

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nice one sir. i did mine by using compendo et divendo rule.

Benjamin ononogbu - 5 years, 1 month ago
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