I was summing up some central binomial coefficients - those of the form \( \binom{2n}{n} \) when I noticed that \( 3^{2k} \) divides \( \sum\limits _{n=0}^{3^k-1}\binom{2n}{n} \) and is the highest power of 3 to do so i.e. \( 3^{2k+1} \) does not.
I have verified this statement for k up to 6. Can anyone find a counterexample, or have an idea how to prove this?
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Your conjecture is actually true. As illustrated in this article, the following holds v3(k=0∑n−1(k2k))=v3((n2n))+2v3(n)
where v3(n) is equal to the exponent of 3 in the prime factorization of n.
Your result is a direct corollary of this fact.
Does anybody have an elementary argument? Or an elementary introduction to p-adic numbers? Could a combinatorial argument use the facts that 3k−1=2(1+3+32+⋯+3k−1) and 32k=9k=(1+8)k=∑j(jk)8j ?