Let \(f(x)=x-\dfrac{1}{x}\).
(a) If f(x)+f(y)=0, then prove or disprove that f(xn)+f(yn)=0 for all integers n.
(b) If f(x)+f(y)+f(z)=0, then prove or disprove that f(xn)+f(yn)+f(zn)=0 for all integers n.
(c) Do the above two problems with the added restriction that x,y,z are positive.
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(a) Counterexample: y=−x and n=2a for some positive integer a. f(x)+f(−x)=x−x1−x+x1=0, but f(xn)+f((−x)n)=f(x2a)+f(x2a)=x2a−x2a1+x2a−x2a1=0.
(b) Again, the counterexample is y=−x, z=1, and n=2a for some positive integer a. f(x)+f(−x)+f(1)=x−x1−x+x1+1−1=0, but f(xn)+f((−x)n)+f(1n)=f(x2a)+f(x2a)=f(1)=x2a−x2a1+x2a−x2a1+1−1=0.
(c) (part 1): Since x,y are positive and f(x)+f(y)=0, x−x1+y−y1=0, and x+y=x1+y1. Adding the fractions on the RHS gives x+y=xyx+y so 1=xy1 or xy=1. Therefore, f(xn)+f(yn)=xn−xn1+yn−yn1=xn−xn1+xn1−xn=0.
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Sorry, your answer for part (a) is wrong. Also, the restriction of part (c) actually matters.
EDIT: thanks, fixed!