Prove that k=1∑n(k+p−1p)=(n+pp+1).
I discovered this formula in 2011. Somebody probably discovered this in the past but I'm not certain whether it is a well-known formula.
Solution
We prove by induction.
First note that
k=1∑n(k+p−1p)=k=1∑np!1k(k+1)(k+2)...(k+p−1)
and
(n+pp+1)=(p+1)!1n(n+1)(n+2)...(n+p)
When n=1,
p!11(2)(3)...(p)=1
(p+1)!11(2)(3)...(p+1)=1
By hypothesis, when n=i,
k=1∑ip!1k(k+1)(k+2)...(k+p−1)=(p+1)!1i(i+1)(i+2)...(i+p)
If n=i+1:
k=1∑i+1p!1k(k+1)(k+2)...(k+p−1)=(p+1)!1(i+1)(i+2)(i+3)...(i+p+1)
then
k=1∑ip!1k(k+1)(k+2)...(k+p−1)+p!1(i+1)(i+2)(i+3)...(i+p)=(i+p+1p+1)
(i+pp+1)+(i+pp)=(i+p+1p+1)
(i+p+1p+1)=(i+p+1p+1)
Therefore,
k=1∑n(k+p−1p)=(n+pp+1)
Check out my other notes at Proof, Disproof, and Derivation
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Solution
We prove by induction.
First note that
k=1∑n(k+p−1p)=k=1∑np!1k(k+1)(k+2)...(k+p−1)=(p+1)!1n(n+1)(n+2)...(n+p)
When n=1: p!11(2)(3)...(p)=1 (p+1)!11(2)(3)...(p+1)=1
When n=2: 1+p!12(3)(4)...(p+1)=p+2 (p+1)!12(3)(4)...(p+2)=p+2
When n=3: (p+2)+p!13(4)(5)...(p+2)=2!1(p+2)(p+3) (p+1)!13(4)(5)...(p+3)=2!1(p+2)(p+3)
Let k=n+1: k=1∑n+1p!1k(k+1)(k+2)...(k+p−1)=(p+1)!1(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)...(n+p+1)
k=1∑np!1k(k+1)(k+2)...(k+p−1)+p!1(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)...(n+p)=(n+p+1p+1)
(n+pp+1)+(n+pp)=(n+p+1p+1)
(n+p+1p+1)=(n+p+1p+1)
Therefore, k=1∑n(k+p−1p)=(n+pp+1)
Proof by induction:
Base case: n=1:
i=1∑1(pi+P−1)=(p+1p+1)
⇒ (pp)=1
The base case clearly holds. Now the inductive case n=k:
i=1∑k(pi+p−1)=(p+1k+p)
⇒ i=1∑k(pi+p−1)=(p+1)!(k−1)!(k+p)!
⇒ (pk+p)+i=1∑k(pi+p−1)=(p+1)!(k−1)!(k+p)!+(pk+p) (By hypothesis)
⇒ i=1∑k+1(pi+p−1)=p!(k)(k−1)!(k+p)!+(p+1)!(k−1)!(k+p)!
⇒ i=1∑k+1(pi+p−1)=(p+1)!(k)!(k+p)!(p+1)+k(k+p)!
⇒ i=1∑k+1(pi+p−1)=(p+1)!(k)!(k+p+1)!
⇒ i=1∑k+1(pi+p−1)=(p+1k+p+1)
Then we may conclude that the statement is true for n=1 and that if the statement is true for some n=k, then it is true for n=k+1. The proof follows by induction. QED
can anyone give me some notes of lessons lines and angles and triangles with inequalities and with sums
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You can try typing "lines and angles" in the search. Quite a lot of people wrote notes on plane geometry.
I'm interested in combinatorial proof for this problem.
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Do you mean a proof using combinations theorem and not induction?
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There we go.
Let A={1,2,…,n+p} for all p≤n. The number of subsets of A with p+1 elements are (p+1n+p)
We'll count this in another way.
Let S⊆A such that S has p+1 elements.
Case 1: 1∈S, we have to choose p elements from n+p−1 left ({2,3,…,n+p}) for S. So we have (pn+p−1) subsets.
Case 2: 1∈S, but 2∈S, we have to choose p elements from n+p−2 left ({3,4,…,n+p}) for S. So we have (pn+p−2) subsets.
General case: 1,2,3,…,k−1∈S, but k∈S, we have to choose p elements from n+p−k elements left ({k+1,k+2,…,n+p}) for S. So we have (pn+p−k) subsets for all k=1,2,…,n
Sum all these cases we get k=1∑n(pn+p−k)=k=1∑n(pk+p−1).
From these 2 ways of counting are the same way, therefore,
k=1∑n(pk+p−1)=(p+1n+p) ~~~
Yep!
Another simple proof would be :
Writing the sum as
k=0∑n−1(kk+p)
Now, we will use the Pascal's Triangle formula that (kn)=(kn−1)+(k−1n−1) by writing (n−1p+n−1)=(n−1p+n)−(n−2p+n−1)
and then adding to the previous term (n−2p+n−2)−(n−2p+n−1)=(n−3p+n−2) and so on till the first term (0p)−(0p+1)=0
Hence, the only term left would be (n−1p+n)=(p+1n+p)