Given prime number \(p>2\), let \(m, n\) be integers such that \( m \equiv n \equiv 0 \pmod{p} \), \(n \equiv 1 \pmod{2} \). Call a function \(f: \{1, \cdots, m \} \longrightarrow \{ 1, \cdots , n \} \) "sweet" if it satisfies \( \sum_{k=1}^m f(k) \equiv 0 \pmod{p}\). Then show that the sum of the products \( \prod_{k=1}^m f(k) \) over all sweet functions \( f \) is a multiple of \( (\frac{n}{p})^m \).
This problem is a part of Tessellate S.T.E.M.S. (2019)
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
*italics*
or_italics_
**bold**
or__bold__
paragraph 1
paragraph 2
[example link](https://brilliant.org)
> This is a quote
\(
...\)
or\[
...\]
to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
There are no comments in this discussion.