LCM of any two non-zero rational numbers always exists.
LCM of any non-zero rational and any irrational number never exists.
LCM of any two irrational numbers may or may not exist.
Also you can start out the discussion here on this note through comments.
Till then you can try to solve the set of such problems : IIT Foundation Classes
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Comments
What is so cool about LCMs?
What are the conditions for two irrational numbers to have an LCM?
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According to my understanding :
LCM of two like irrational numbers always exists.
Now what I mean to say like here is :
Let any irrational number being λ. then another irrational number α will be like to λ if α=A×λ where A is any non-zero rational number.
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Sir, but what about this and this.
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6π and in the other case LCM is 2e.
Yeah, LCM exists in both the cases. in one case LCM isLog in to reply
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Thank you very much sir, I was scared that my question was wrong! I love you sir! :PLog in to reply
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Thank you my dear,Log in to reply
But Sir i thought in your previous questions there are no LCM for two irrational numbers nor between irrational number and rational number.
Yeah, I would Like to Know the same. :)
What is the most accepted definition of LCM sir, which is in accordance with all integers, rationals and irrationals ? (As you may have known, most people like me are having a problem with the definition ).
Thanks in advance :).
Can you post questions on Polynomials ? and Geometry ?
Good explanation about LCM'S keep it up::)