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2 \times 3
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a_{i-1}
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Comments
I think mathematical induction is a good hint, and you should just work through it.
Alternatively, for a more straightforward solution, show that the initial condition implies that sin2θ=x+yx,cos2θ=x+yy. Then, the subsequent condition follows directly.
@Gabriel Barros
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how to post a picture, eh?? its quite troublesome.... i have the solutn ready bt i just can't expose it due to the lack of attachment option...:P
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
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to ensure proper formatting.2 \times 3
2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
Comments
I think mathematical induction is a good hint, and you should just work through it.
Alternatively, for a more straightforward solution, show that the initial condition implies that sin2θ=x+yx,cos2θ=x+yy. Then, the subsequent condition follows directly.
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To prove the second condition is much neater.
If m = 1 Then result verified
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we don't have to find the value of m...m is any integer for which the equation stands true..
is it done by mathematical induction....
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but how? :P
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arey....i was asking...from you....if it is done...by mathematical induction....i'll try...to xplain u....
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[email protected]...
but how to post a picture over here?? okay, if u wnt the solutn then mail me ur email addrss onAt first we take the given expression :- (Sin^{4}ө) /x + (cos^{4} ө)/y = 1/x+y Now write cosө in terms of sinө (Sin^{4} ө) /x + ( 1-sin^{2} ө)^{2} /y =1/x+y Take LCM => [ ysin^{4}ө + x(1-2sin^{2}ө + sin^{4}ө) ] /xy = 1/x+y Now cross multiply => sin^{4}ө (x+y)^{2} + x^{2} + xy – 2x^{2}sinө -2xysin^{2}ө = xy Let sin^ {2}ө = α => α^{2} (x+y)^{2} -2αx^{2} - 2xyα + x^{2} = 0 => α^{2}(x+y)^{2} -2αx ( x+y) +x^{2} = 0 =>[ α(x+y) - x ]^{2} = 0 => α = x / x+y We need to prove that sin^{2(m+1) }ө / x^{m} + cos^{2(m+1) }ө / y^{m} = 1/(x+y)^{m} At first we take the expression given on the left hand side :- => (sin^{2}ө )^{m+1} / x^{m} + (1-sin^{2}ө)^{m+1} / y^{m} But sin^{ 2}ө =α , as we had already assumed in the earlier steps =>( x/x+y)^{m+1} /x^{m} + (1 – x/x+y)^{m+1} /y^{m} => x^{m+1} / (x+y)^{m+1}x^{m} + y^{m+1} / (x+y)^{m+1} y^{m}
=> 1/(x+y)^{m+1} [ x^{m+1} / x^{m} + y^{m+1} / y^{m}] => 1/(x+y)^{m+1} [ x^{m+1} y^{m} + y^{m+1}x^{m} / (xy)^{m}] => 1/(x+y)^{m+1} [ x^{m}y^{m} (x+y) / x^{m}y^{m}] => (x+y) /(x+y)^{m+1} => ( x+y)^{–m} => 1/(x+y)^{m}
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its horrible to read that :P
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i have no idea regarding the latex form...so i cudn't convert to latex form bt u can go through this...and ask me fr ny help regarding math
contact me at :- [email protected]
It can be solved by MATHEMATICAL INDUCTION!!!!! Please see this technique uploaded by Sir Calvin in the blog!!!
Wat is trigonometry