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@Steven Zheng i get the derivation but how do you establish that it is the only unique way?? ...... Is it like *p and q are roots of a quadratic * and there can be only two such roots ........ please help!
Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
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2^{34}
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Claim is not true for a=1,b=1
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Is it because 0 is not rational?
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If p=1+1=2, then there are many values of q such that p+q and pq are both rational. For example, any integer will work.
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a,b be rational numbers not equal to 0 and 1. Actually if b is a square-free rational number.
I see. I guess I should change it toWait, I don't see what is wrong. Zero is rational, so if a=b=1, the p=2 and q=0. Therefore p+q=2 and pq=0 which are both rational numbers.
@Steven Zheng i get the derivation but how do you establish that it is the only unique way?? ...... Is it like *p and q are roots of a quadratic * and there can be only two such roots ........ please help!
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In the end, we found that if p=a−b and p+q,pq are rational, then q must equal to a+b.